Qualifying For Stock Loss Under Section 1244

 

I am looking at a case having to do with Section 1244 stock.

And I am thinking: it has been a while since I have seen a Section 1244.

Mind you; that is not a bad thing, as Section 1244 requires losses. The most recent corporate exit I have seen was a very sweet rollup of a professional practice for approximately $10 million. No loss = no Section 1244.

Let’s set up the issue.

We are talking about corporations. They can be either C or S corporations, but this is a corporate tax thing. BTW there is a technical issue with Section 1244 and S corporations, but let’s skip it for this discussion.

The corporation has gone out of business.

A corporation has stock. When the corporation goes out of business, that stock is worthless. This means that the shareholder has incurred a loss on that stock. If he/she acquired the stock for $5,000, then there is a loss of $5,000 when the corporation closes.

Next: that loss is – unless something else kicks-in – a capital loss.

Capital losses offset capital gains dollar-for-dollar.

Let’s say taxpayer has no capital gains.

Capital losses are then allowed to offset (up to) $3,000 of other income.

It will take this person a couple of years to use up that $5,000 loss.

Section 1244 is a pressure valve, of sorts, in this situation.

A shareholder can claim up to $50,000 of ordinary loss ($100,000 if married filing joint) upon the sale, liquidation or worthlessness of stock if:

 

(1)  The stock is be either common or preferred, voting or nonvoting, but stock acquired via convertible securities will not qualify;

(2)  The stock was initially issued to an individual or partnership;

(3)  The initial capitalization of the corporation did not exceed $1 million;

(4)  The initial capitalization was done with stock and property (other than stock and securities);

(5)  Only persons acquiring stock directly from the corporation will qualify; and

(6)  For the five tax years preceding the loss, the corporation received more than 50% of its aggregate gross receipts from sources other than interest, dividends, rents, royalties, and the sale or exchange of stocks or securities.

The advantage is that the ordinary loss can offset other income and will probably be used right away, as opposed to that $3,000 year-by-year capital loss thing.

Mind you, there can also be part Section 1244/part capital loss.

Say a married couple lost $130,000 on the bankruptcy of their corporation.

Seems to me you have:

                      Section 1244                     100,000

                      Capital loss                         30,000

Let’s look at the Ushio case.

Mr Ushio acquired the stock of PCHG, a South Carolina corporation, for $50,000.

PCHG intended to was looking to get involved with alternative energy. It made agreements with a Nevada company and other efforts, but nothing ever came of it. PCHG folded in 2012.

Ushio claimed a $50,000 Section 1244 loss.

The IRS denied it.

There were a couple of reasons:

(1)  Mr. Ushio still had to prove that $1 million limit.

 

The issue here was the number at the corporate level: was the corporation initially capitalized (for cash and property other than stock and securities) for $1 million or less? If yes, then all the issued stock qualified. If no, the corporation must identify which shares qualified and which shares did not.

        

It is possible that PCHG was not even close to $1 million in capitalization, in which a copy of its initial tax return might be sufficient. Alternatively, PCHG’s attorney or accountant might/should have records to document this requirement.        

 

(2)  PCHG never had gross receipts.

 

This means that PHGC could not meet the 50% of gross receipts requirement, as it had no gross receipts at all.

 

Note that opening a savings or money market account would not have helped. PCHG might then have had gross receipts, but 100% of its gross receipts would have been interest income – the wrong kind of income.

Mr Ushio did not have a Section 1244 loss, as PCHG did not qualify due to the gross-receipts requirement. You cannot do percentages off a denominator of zero.

My first thought when reviewing the case was the long odds of the IRS even looking at the return, much less disallowing a Section 1244 loss on said return. That is not what happened. The IRS was initially looking at other areas of the Ushio return. In fact, Ushio had not even claimed a capital loss – much less a Section 1244 loss – on the original return. The issue came up during the examination, making it easy for the IRS to say “prove it.”

How would a tax advisor deal with this gross-receipts hurdle in practice?

Well, the initial and planned activity of PCHG failed to produce any revenues. It seems to me that an advisor would look to parachute-in another activity that would produce some – any – revenues, in order to meet the Section 1244 requirement. The tax Code wants to see an operating business, and it uses gross receipts as its screen for operations.

Could the IRS challenge such effort as failing to rise to the level of a trade or business or otherwise lacking economic substance? Well, yes, but consider the alternative: a slam-dunk failure to qualify under Section 1244.

Our case this time was Ushio v Commissioner, TC Summary Opinion 2021-27.

Section 1202 Stock And A House Tax Proposal

I am not a fan of fickleness and caprice in the tax law.

I am seeing a tax proposal in the House Ways and Means Committee that represents one.

It has been several years since we spoke about qualified small business stock (QSBS). Tax practice is acronym rich, and one of the reasons is to shortcut who qualifies – and does not qualify – for a certain tax provision. Section 1202 defines QSBS as stock:

·      issued by a C corporation,

·      with less than $50 million in assets at time of stock issuance,

·      engaged in an active trade or business,

·      acquired at original issuance by an eligible shareholder in exchange for either cash or services provided, and

·      held for at least five years.

The purpose of this provision is to encourage – supposedly – business start-ups.

How?

A portion of the gain is not taxed when one sells the stock.

This provision has been out there for approximately 30 years, and the portion not taxed has changed over time. Early on, one excluded 50% (up to a point); it then became 75% and is now 100% (again, up to a point).

What is that point?

The amount of gain that can be excluded is the greater of:

·      $10 million, or

·      10 times the taxpayer’s basis in the stock disposed

Sweet.

Does that mean I sell my tax practice for megabucks, all the while excluding $10 million of gain?

Well, no. Accounting practices do not qualify for Section 1202. Not to feel singled- out, law and medical practices do not qualify either.

I have seen very few Section 1202 transactions over the years. I believe there are two primary reasons for this:

                 

(a)  I came into the profession near the time of the 1986 Tax Reform Act, which single-handedly tilted choice-of-entity for entrepreneurial companies from C to S corporations. Without going into details, the issue with a C corporation is getting money out without paying double tax. It is not an issue if one is talking about paying salary or rent, as one side deducts and the other side reports income. It is however an issue when the business is sold. The S corporation allows one to mitigate (or altogether avoid) the double tax in this situation. Overnight the S corporation became the entity of choice for entrepreneurial and closely-held companies. There has been some change in recent years as LLCs have gained popularity, but the C corporation continues to be out-of-favor for non-Wall Street companies. 

 

(b)  The sale of entrepreneurial and closely-held companies is rarely done as a stock purchase, a requirement for Section 1202 stock. These companies sell their assets, not their stock. Stock acquisitions are more a Wall Street phenomenon.

So, who benefits from Section 1202?

A company that would be acquired via a stock purchase. Someone like … a tech start-up, for example. How sweet it would have been to be an early investor in Uber or Ring, for example. And remember: the $10 million cap is per investor. Take hundreds of qualifying investors and you can multiply that $10 million by hundreds.

You can see the loss to the Treasury.

Is it worth it?

There has been criticism that perhaps the real-world beneficiaries of Section 1202 are not what was intended many years ago when this provision entered the tax Code.

I get it.

So what is the House Ways and Means Committee proposing concerning Section 1202?

They propose to cut the exclusion to 50% from 100% for taxpayers with adjusted gross income (AGI) over $400 grand and for sales after September 13, 2021.

Set aside the $400 grand AGI. That sale might be the only time in life that someone ever got close to or exceeded $400 grand of income.

The issue is sales after September 13, 2021.

It takes at least five years to even qualify for Section 1202. This means that the tax planning for a 2021 sale was done on or before 2016, and now the House wants to retroactively nullify tax law that people relied upon years ago.

Nonsense like this is damaging to normal business. I have made a career representing entrepreneurs and their closely-held businesses. I have been there – first person singular - where business decisions have been modified or scrapped because of tax disincentives. Taxing someone to death clearly qualifies as a business disincentive. So does retroactively changing the rules on a decision that takes years to play out. Mind you – I say that not as a fan of Section 1202.

To me it would make more sense to change the rules only for stock issued after a certain date – say September 13, 2021 – and not for sales after that date. One at least would be forewarned.   

Should bad-faith tax proposals like this concern you?

Well, yes. If our current kakistocracy can do this, what keeps them from retroactively revoking the current tax benefits of your Roth IRA?  How would you feel if you have been following the rules for 20 years, contributing to your Roth, paying taxes currently, all with the understanding that future withdrawals would be tax-free, and meanwhile a future Congress decides to revoke that rule - retroactively?

I can tell you how I would feel.

A Day Trader and Wash Losses

 

We have had a difficult time with the tax return of someone who dove into the deep end of the day-trading pool last year. The year-end Fidelity statement reported the trades, but the calculation of gain and losses was way off. The draft return landed on my desk showing a wash loss of about $2.5 million. Problem: the client was trading approximately $250 grand in capital. She would have known if she lost $2.5 million as either she (1) would have had a capital call, (2) used margin, or (3) done a bit of both.

Let’s talk about wash sales.

The rule was created in 1921 because of a too-favorable tax strategy.

Let’s say that you own a stock. You really believe in it and have no intention of parting with it. You get near the end of the year and you are reviewing your to-date capital gains and losses with your advisor. You have $5 thousand in capital gains so far. That stock you like, however, took a dip and would show a $4 thousand loss … if you sold it. The broker hatches a plan.

“This is what we will do” says the broker. We will sell the stock on December 30 and buy it back on January 2. You will be out of the stock for a few days, but it should not move too much. What it will do is allow us to use that $4 thousand loss to offset the $5 thousand gain.”

It is a great plan.

Too great, in fact. Congress caught wind and changed the rules. If you sell a stock at a loss AND buy the same or substantially identical stock either

·      30 days before or

·      30 days after …

… the sale creating the loss, you will have a wash sale. What the tax law does is grab the loss ($4 thousand in our example) and add it to the basis of the stock that you bought during the 30 day before-and-after period. The loss is not permanently lost, but it is delayed.

Mind you, it only kicks-in if you sell at a loss. Sell at a gain and the government will always take your money.

Let’s go through an example:

·      On June 8 you sell 100 shares at a loss of $600.

·      On July 3 you buy 100 shares of the same stock.

You sold at a loss. You replaced the stock within the 61-day period. You have a wash loss. The tax Code will disallow the $600 loss on the June 8 trade and increase your basis in the July 3 trade by $600. The $600 loss did not disappear, but it is waiting until you sell that July 3 position.

Problem: you day trade. You cannot go 48 hours without trading in-and-out of your preferred group of stocks.

You will probably have a lot of wash sales. If you didn’t, you might want to consider quitting your day job and launching a hedge fund.

Problem: do this and you can blow-up the year-end tax statement Fidelity sends you. That is how I have a return on my desk showing $2.5 million of losses when the client had “only” $250 grand in the game.

I want to point something out.

Let’s return to our example and change the dates.

·      You already own 100 shares of a stock

·      On June 8 you buy another 100 shares

·      On July 3 you sell 100 shares at a loss

This too is a wash. Remember: 30 days BEFORE and after. It is a common mistake.

The “substantially identical” stock requirement can be difficult to address in practice. Much of the available guidance comes from Revenue Rulings and case law, leaving room for interpretation. Let’s go through a few examples.

·      You sell and buy 100 shares of Apple. That is easy: wash sale.

·      You sell 100 shares of Apple and buy 100 shares of Microsoft. That is not a wash as the stocks are not the same.

·      You sell 30-year Apple bonds and buy 10-year Apple bonds. This is not a wash, as bonds of different maturities are not considered substantially identical, even if issued by the same company.

·      You sell Goldman Sachs common stock and buy Goldman Sachs preferred. This is not a wash, as a company’s common and preferred stock are not considered substantially identical.

·      You sell 100 shares of American Funds Growth Fund and buy 100 shares of Fidelity Growth Company. The tax law gets murky here. There are all kinds of articles about portfolio overlap and whatnot trying to interpret the “substantially identical” language in the area of mutual funds.  Fortunately, the IRS has not beat the drums over the years when dealing with funds. I, for example, would consider the management team to be a significant factor when buying an actively-managed mutual fund. I would hesitate to consider two actively-managed funds as substantially identical when they are run by different teams. I would consider two passively-managed index funds, by contrast, as substantially identical if they tracked the same index.  

·      You sell 100 shares of iShares S&P 500 ETF and buy the Vanguard S&P 500 ETF.  I view this the same as two index mutual funds tracking the same index: the ETFs are substantially identical.

·      Let’s talk options. Say that you sell 100 shares of a stock and buy a call on the same stock (a call is the option to buy a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax Code considers a stock sale followed by the purchase of a call to be substantially identical.

·      Let’s continue with the stock/call combo. What if you reverse the order: sell the call for a loss and then buy the stock? You have a different answer: the IRS does not consider this a wash.

·      Staying with options, let’s say that you sell 100 shares of stock and sell a put on the same stock (a put is the option to sell a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax consequence of a put option is not as bright-line as a call option. The IRS looks at whether the put is “likely to be exercised,” generally interpreted as being “in the money.”

Puts can be confusing, so let’s walk through an example. Selling means that somebody pays me money. Somebody does that for the option of requiring me to buy their stock at a set price for a set period. Say they pay me $4 a share for the option of selling to me at $55 a share. Say the stock goes to $49 a share. Their breakeven is $51 a share ($55 minus $4). They can sell to me at net $51 or sell at the market for $49.  Folks, they are selling the stock to me. That put is “in-the-money.”  

Therefore, if I sell a put when it is in-the-money, I very likely have something substantially identical.

There are other rules out there concerning wash sales.

·      You sell the stock and your spouse buys the stock. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock in your Fidelity account and buy it in your Vanguard account. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock and your IRA buys the stock. All right, that one is not as obvious, but the IRS considers that a wash. I get it: one is taxable and the other is tax-deferred. But the IRS says it is a wash. I am not the one making the rules here.

·      There is a proportional rule. If you sell 100 shares at a loss and buy only 40 shares during the relevant 61-day period, then 40% (40/100) of the total loss will be disallowed as a wash.

Let’s circle back to our day trader. The term “trader” has a specific meaning in the tax Code. You might consider someone a trader because they buy and sell like a madman. Even so, the tax Code has a bias to NOT consider one a trader. There are numerous cases where someone trades on a regular, continuous and substantial basis – maybe keeping an office and perhaps even staff - but the IRS does not consider them a trader. Maybe there is a magic number that will persuade the IRS - 200 trading days a year, $10 million dollars in annual trades, a bazillion individual trades – but no one knows.

There is however one sure way to have the IRS recognize someone as a trader. It is the mark-to-market election. The wash loss rule will not apply, but one will pay tax on all open positions at year-end. Tax nerds refer to this as a “mark,” hence the name of the election.

The mark pretends that you sold everything at the end of the year, whether you actually did or did not. It plays pretend but with your wallet. This tax treatment is different from the general rule, the one where you actually have to sell (or constructively sell) something before the IRS can tax you.

Also, the election is permanent; one can only get out of it with IRS permission.

A word of caution: read up and possibly seek professional advice if you are considering a mark election. This is nonroutine stuff – even for a tax pro. I have been in practice for over 35 years, and I doubt I have seen a mark election a half-dozen times.

The Tax Doctrine Of The Fruit And The Tree

 

I am uncertain what the IRS saw in the case. The facts were very much in the taxpayer’s favor.

The IRS was throwing a penalty flag and asking the Court to call an assignment of income foul.

Let’s talk about it.

The tax concept for assignment-of-income is that a transaction has progressed so far that one has – for all real and practical purposes – realized income. One is just waiting for the check to arrive in the mail.

But what if one gives away the transaction – all, part or whatever – to someone else? Why? Well, one reason is to move the tax to someone else.

A classic case in this area is Helvering v Horst. Horst goes back to old days of coupon bonds, which actually had perforated coupons. One would tear-off a coupon and redeem it to receive an interest check. In this case the father owned the bonds. He tore off the coupons and gave them to his son, who in turn redeemed them and reported the income. Helvering v Horst gave tax practitioners the now-famous analogy of a tree and its fruit. The tree was the bond, and the fruit was the coupon. The Court observed:

… The fruit is not to be attributed to a different tree from that on which it grew.”

The Court decided that the father had income. If he wanted to move the income (the fruit) then he would have to move the bond (the tree).

Jon Dickinson (JD) was the chief financial officer and a shareholder of a Florida engineering firm. Several shareholders – including JD – had requested permission to transfer some of their shares to the Fidelity Charitable Gift Fund (Fidelity). Why did they seek permission? There can be several reasons, but one appears key: it is Fidelity’s policy to immediately liquidate the donated stock. Being a private company, Fidelity could not just sell the shares in the stock market. No, the company would have to buy-back the stock. I presume that JD and the others shareholders wanted some assurance that the company would do so.

JD buttoned-down the donation:

·      The Board approved the transfers to Fidelity.

·      The company confirmed to Fidelity that its books and records reflected Fidelity as the new owner of the shares.

·      JD also sent a letter to Fidelity with each donation indicating that the transferred stock was “exclusively owned and controlled by Fidelity” and that Fidelity “is not and will not be under any obligation to redeem, sell or otherwise transfer” the stock.

·      Fidelity sent a letter to JD after each donation explaining that it had received and thereafter exercised “exclusive legal control over the contributed asset.”

So what did the IRS see here?

The IRS saw Fidelity’s standing policy to liquidate donated stock. As far as the IRS was concerned, the stock had been approved for redemption while JD still owned it. This would trigger Horst – that is, the transaction had progressed so far that JD was an inextricable part. Under the IRS scenario, JD would have a stock redemption – the company would have bought-back the stock from him and not Fidelity – and he would have taxable gain. Granted, JD would also have a donation (because he would have donated the cash from the stock sale to Fidelity), but the tax rules on charitable deductions would increase his income (for the gain) more than the decrease in his income (for the contribution). JD would owe tax.

The Court looked at two key issues:

(1)  Did JD part with the property absolutely and completely?

This one was a quick “yes.” The paperwork was buttoned-up as tight as could be.

(2)  Did JD donate the property before there was a fixed and determinable right to sale?

You can see where the IRS was swinging. All parties knew that Fidelity would redeem the stock; it was Fidelity’s policy. By approving the transfer of shares, the company had – in effect – “locked-in” the redemption while JD still owned the stock. This would trigger assignment-of-income, argued the IRS.

Except that there is a list of cases that look at formalities in situations like this. Fidelity had the right to request redemption – but the redemption had not been approved at the time of donation. While a seemingly gossamer distinction, it is a distinction with tremendous tax weight. Make a sizeable donation but fail to get the magic tax letter from the charity; you will quickly find out how serious the IRS is about formalities. Same thing here. JD and the company had checked all the boxes.

The Court did not see a tree and fruit scenario. There was no assignment of income. JD got his stock donation.

Our case this time was Dickinson v Commissioner, TC Memo 2020-128.

Making A Comeback: Section 1202 Stock

We are going tax-geek for this post.

Let’s blame Daryl, a financial advisor with Wells Fargo. He has been studying and asking about a particular Code section.

Code Section 1202.

This section has been a dud since 1993, but last year’s changes to the tax Code have resurrected it. I suspect we will be reading more about Section 1202 in the future.

What sets up the tension is the ongoing debate whether it is better to do business as a “C” corporation (which pays its own tax) or an “S” corporation (whose income drops onto its owners’ individual returns, who pay tax on the business as well as their other personal income).

There are two compelling factors driving the debate:

(1) The difference between corporate and individual tax rates.

For most of my career, top-end individual tax rates have exceeded top-end corporate tax rates. Assuming one is pushing the pedal to the floor, this would be an argument to be a C corporation.

(2)  Prior to 1986, there was a way to liquidate (think “sell”) a C corporation and pay tax only once. The 1986 tax act did away with this option (except for highly specialized – and usually reorganization-type – transactions). Since 1986 a C corporation has to pay tax when it liquidates (because it sold or is considered to have sold its assets). Its assets then transfer to its shareholders, who again pay tax (because they are considered to have sold their stock).

Factor (2) has pretty much persuaded most non-Fortune-500 tax advisors to recommend S corporations, to the extent that most of the C corporations many tax practitioners have worked with since 1986 have been legacy C’s. LLC’s have also been competing keenly with S corporations, and advisors now debate which is preferable. I prefer the settled tax law of S corporations, whereas other advisors emphasize the flexibility that LLCs bring to the picture.

Section 1202 applies to C corporations, and it gives you a tax break when you sell the stock. There are hoops, of course:

(1)   It must be a domestic (that is, a U.S.) C corporation.

(2)   You must acquire the stock when initially issued.

a.     Meaning that you did not buy the stock from someone else.

b.    It does not mean only the first issuance of stock. It can be the second or third issuance, as long as one meets the $ threshold (discussed below) and you are the first owner.

(3)   Corporate assets did not exceed $50 million when the stock was issued.

a.     Section 1202 is more of a west-Coast than Midwest phenomenon. That $50 million makes sense when you consider Silicon Valley.

b.    If you get cute and use a series of related companies, none exceeding $50 million, the tax Code will combine you into one big company with assets over $50 million.

c.     By the way, the $50 million is tested when the stock is issued, not when you sell the stock. Sell to Google for a zillion dollars and you can still qualify for Section 1202.

(4)   You have owned the stock for at least five years.

(5)   Not every type of business will qualify.

a.     Generally speaking, professional service companies – think law, health, accounting and so on – will not qualify. There are other lines of businesses – like restaurants and motels - that are also disqualified.

(6)   Upon a qualifying sale, a shareholder can exclude the larger of (a) $10 million or (b) 10 times the shareholder’s adjusted basis in the stock.

Folks, a minimum $10 million exclusion? That is pretty sweet.

I mentioned earlier that Section 1202 has – for most of its existence – been a dud. How can $10 million be a dud?

Because it hasn’t always been $10 million. For a long time, the exclusion was 50% of the gain, and one was to use a 28% capital gains rate on the other 50%. Well, 50% of 28% is 14%. Consider that the long-term capital gains rate was 15%, and tax advisors were not exactly doing handstands over a 1% tax savings.

In 2010 the exclusion changed to 100%. Advisors became more interested.

But it takes five years to prime this pump, meaning that it was 2015 (and more likely 2016 or 2017) by the time one got to five years.

What did the 2017 tax bill do to resurrect Section 1202?

It lowered the “C” corporation tax rate to 21%.

Granted, it also added a “passthrough” deduction so that S corporations, LLCs and other non-C-corporation businesses remained competitive with C corporations. Not all passthrough businesses will qualify, however, and – in an instance of dark humor – the new law refers to (5)(a) above to identify those businesses not qualifying for the passthrough deduction.

COMMENT: And there is a second way that Section 1202 has become relevant. A tax advisor now has to consider Section 1202 – not only for the $10-million exclusion – but also in determining whether a non-C business will qualify for the new 20% passthrough deduction. Problem is, there is next to no guidance on Section 1202 because advisors for years DID NOT CARE about this provision. We were not going to plan a multiyear transaction for a mere 1% tax savings.

Nonetheless 21% is a pretty sweet rate, especially if one can avoid that second tax. Enter Section 1202.

If the deal is sweet enough I suppose the $10 million or 10-times-adjusted-basis might not cover it all.

Good problem to have.

Amending Your Way Into A Penalty

I have a set of tax returns in my office for someone who dropped off the tax grid for years. I suspect we will be fighting penalties and requesting a payment plan in the too-near future.

It reminded me of why not filing returns is a bad idea.

Here’s one: she has refunds she cannot use because the statute period has expired.

She could have used the refunds, as she has other years with tax due.

There is another reason.

Let’s say that you file a return, but you file it late. For example, you extend the return to October, but you don’t get around to filing until the following January or February. You have a refund so you do not care.

Many tax professionals would agree with you. Penalties apply on tax due. If there is no tax due, then – voila – no penalty (generally speaking).

But you later amend the return. Or the IRS adjusts the return for you. However it happened, you now owe tax.

Consider this:

          § 6651 Failure to file tax return or to pay tax

(a)  Addition to the tax.

In case of failure-

(1)    to file any return required under authority […]on the date prescribed therefor (determined with regard to any extension of time for filing), unless it is shown that such failure is due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect, there shall be added to the amount required to be shown as tax on such return 5 percent of the amount of such tax if the failure is for not more than 1 month, with an additional 5 percent for each additional month or fraction thereof during which such failure continues, not exceeding 25 percent in the aggregate;

This is called the “late filing” penalty.

I am looking at a tax case from 1998. Greg Vinikoor (GK) married Melissa Vinikoor (MV). Best I can figure, her dad must have been loaded, as he was repeatedly transferring shares of stock to the newlyweds. GK graduated from college and took a job making $12 grand a year. They got everything out of that $12 grand, including:

·      trips to Hawaii, San Diego, Scottsdale and San Francisco

·      shopping trips to Saks Fifth Avenue, Neiman Marcus and Nordstrum

·      membership at the Tucson Country Club

We both know that they were not paying for this on that $12,000 salary. They were either borrowing against or selling stock that dad had transferred.

The IRS wanted to know why they were not reporting stock gains on their tax returns. There had been quite the run-up in value since dad had acquired the stock. In the case of a gift, dad’s low basis in the stock would carryover to the couple. Since gain = price – basis, that low basis meant a juicy gain, and the IRS wanted its cut.

Good question.

Uhhh…. Because we bought the stock from dad, they answered. Yeah, that’s it. We have a new – and higher! - basis because we bought the stock. We bought it on loan, and we have to pay dad back.

Fine, said the IRS. Show us the loan agreement.

Don’t have one, they replied.

Show us where you paid interest to dad.

We haven’t – not yet, they responded.

Is there a fixed repayment date?

Just an understanding, they susurrated.

How about security? Did you give any collateral for the loan?

No, not really, they murmured.

The Court was zero impressed.

After the stock rose, XXX [dad], the supposed creditor in these transactions never made any demand on petitioners for repayment, even though the value of the stock had increased substantially and petitioners were diminishing the stock with spendthrift habits.”

The Court decided this was a gift. There was gain, there was tax.

Guess who failed to file their tax return on time?

Yep, the Vinikoors.

Now they had penalties.

More specifically, that 25% penalty we talked about. It totaled over $38 grand.

And there is the trap. That late filing can haunt and hurt you if you later amend or the IRS adjusts the return to increase income. That penalty goes to back when, not the date you amended or the IRS adjusted.

File those returns on time, folks. Amend later if you do not have all the information, but at least you got the horse over the wire on time.

Our case this time – as you may have guessed – was Vinikoor v Commissioner.

How Do You Really Know If You Filed A Tax Return?

Here is what caught my attention:

The Internal Revenue Service … determined a deficiency of $541,552 in petitioner’s 2012 Federal income tax and an accuracy-related penalty of $107,995.”

This is the Whitsett case. She is a doctor and specializes in blood transfusions. Way back in 1982 she and her husband bought 4,000 shares of Immucor, Inc stock for $11,000. She kept it after the divorce.

Fast forward to 2011 and someone agreed to acquire Immucor for $27 per share.

She had almost 20 years for the stock to split and split again; she now owned 63,594 shares.

By my math 63,594 times $27 = $1,717,038.

How I wish I had those problems.

Come tax time she takes the paperwork to her accountant, whom she had used for decades. She showed him paperwork accompanying her $1.17 million check, captioned “Corporate Action Advice.” It said that …

·      The “payment date” was August 19, 2011

·      The “tax year” was 2012

·      The sale was “processed” on January, 2012

I have no idea what this “action advice” was trying to say. As a tax CPA, I report someone’s financial life to the IRS one year at a time. It is critical to me to know whether this sale took place in 2011 or 2012. Whoever wrote this “advice” must have been crazed or did not command the language.

COMMENT: If I were the CPA, I would be on the phone to shareholder services. Or I would ask you to call. Either way, we are investigating.

QUESTION: There is one more thing that could help with determining the tax year. Can you guess what it is?

Dr W’s accountant takes a look at the paperwork and decides that 2011 is the proper year to report the gain.

The accountant was also under the impression that she had been reinvesting dividends. He does a calculation (totaling $628,437), adds it to $11,000 and determines that her “basis” in the stock was $639,437.

And her gain is $1,077,601 (1,717,038 – 639,437).

He extends her return and has her send an extension payment of $154,776.

The return was extended until October 15, 2012. For some reason, he did not finish it on time. Instead he finished it in February, 2013. He sent Dr W a copy of her return as well as a letter explaining that he had “filed the return electronically.”

Happens all the time.

COMMENT: Except that a step is missing. Do you know what it is?

There was $5,393 due, and the Dr sent a check.

All done, right?

Nope.

The Dr gets a Form 1099-B reporting the sale of the stock in 2012.

COMMENT: Now he has to amend her 2011 to remove the sale.

The accountant reviewed the paperwork and decided that nothing needed to be reported in 2012, as she had reported the sale the year before. As if to provide an exclamation point, he did not even show the sale on her 2012 return with zero gain, if only to avoid tripping the IRS computers. He was pretty certain about his game. 

COMMENT: This is not done. Even if I was absolutely convinced that the 1099 was in error, I would report it on your return and then find a way to back it out. The IRS simply matches A to B; in the event of a mismatch, the IRS computers send out an automatic notice. The notice does not pass human eyeballs until you respond (or eventually, should you fail to respond).

Late in 2013 the IRS sent the Dr a notice asking where her 2011 return was. They were showing a credit of $165,562 but no return.

For some reason the Dr sent another check for $5,393. Why? Who knows.

She asked him about that 2011 return. He assured her that he filed it electronically.

COMMENT: If the IRS is asking, you did not file. You may have thought you did, but you are not going to win this fight. Send them a copy. Some practitioners even include a legend such as “Information Only – Previously Filed.” You can attach a note to this effect. No one is going to read the note and – more likely than not – you will receive a notice for late filing, but there is no harm.

Her accountant was so sure, however, that he sent the IRS nothing. Not a letter. Not a call. Nothing. What could possibly go wrong?

By October, 2014 the IRS sent the Dr a notice for big-time taxes due for 2012. Remember that - according to the IRS - she sold that stock in 2012.

In February 2015, the accountant backed down and admitted that the sale should have been reported in 2012. He also blew the calculation of her stock basis by adding $628,437 for reinvestments. Turns out that she had not reinvested. He promised to amend the 2011 and 2012 returns.

He amended nothing.

Finally – and fed up – she hired an attorney.

On April 10, 2015, the attorney amended the 2011 return, removing the sale of stock. 

QUESTION: Do you recognize the significance of the date: April 10, 2015?

Without the stock sale, she had a gigantic overpayment for 2011, which the attorney applied to 2012 and the stock sale.

The case, by the way, was not about the story we have just told. No sir. The case was because the IRS wanted gigantic penalties from Dr W.

Huh?

From their perspective, she refused to file a 2011 return, even after being reminded.

And – on top of that – she left out a big stock sale on her 2012 return.

If that was all you knew, she would look pretty bad.

From her side, the IRS looks like a bully. She reported the stock gain and paid the tax A YEAR EARLY.

Granted, the paperwork was a disaster, but the money was there before its time. If anything, the IRS should pay interest for banking her money.

The Tax Court fortunately reversed the penalties against Dr W. They felt she had acted with “reasonable cause” and “in good faith.” She relied on a long-standing tax advisor. He went off the rails, but how was she to know?

Remember that the penalty was over a hundred grand.

Back to our questions:

(1) The accountant should have questioned why he did not have a Form 1099-B for 2011. Anything can happen and paperwork gets lost, but the lack of one made me curious immediately.

(2) The accountant is not allowed to release her return without written permission from Dr W. Why? Because it not his return, that is why. He should have requested her to sign an authorization and mail it back to him before filing anything.

(3) The significance of the date is the statute of limitations. The original due date for a 2011 return was April 15, 2012. Add three years and make it April 15, 2015. If she wanted to get her 2011 refund (and she did), she had to get her amended return in by April 15, 2015. She made it by 5 days.

I am not sure what happened with the accountant. Was there a foul-up with his software? Did he attempt to electronically file but not recognize that the attempt failed? Why did he ignore a Form 1099, knowing that those things are chum-in-the-water for the IRS? Why did he not recognize that the statute of limitations was closing on a hundred-and-fifty grand?

And why not just send another copy of the return to the IRS and be done with it?