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Showing posts with label fund. Show all posts
Showing posts with label fund. Show all posts

Sunday, October 22, 2023

Sonny Corleone’s IRA


I remember him as Sonny Corleone in The Godfather. He is James Caan, and he passed away in July 2022.

I am reading a Tax Court case involving his (more correctly: his estate’s) IRA.

There is a hedge fund involved.

For the most part, we are comfortable with “traditional” investments: money markets, CDs, stocks, bonds, mutual funds holding stocks and bonds and the mutual fund’s updated sibling: an ETF holding stocks and bonds.

Well, there are also nontraditional investments: gold, real estate, cryptocurrency, private equity, hedge funds. I get it: one is seeking additional diversification, low correlation to existing investments, enhanced protection against inflation and so forth.

For the most part, I consider nontraditional investments as more appropriate for wealthier individuals. Most people I know have not accumulated sufficient wealth to need nontraditional assets.

There are also tax traps with nontraditional assets in an IRA. We’ve talked before about gold. This time let’s talk about hedge funds.

James Caan had his cousin (Paul Caan) manage two IRAs at Credit Suisse. Paul wanted to take his career in a different direction, and he transferred management of the IRAs to Michael Margiotta. Margiotta left Credit Suisse in 2004, eventually winding up at UBS.

The wealthy are not like us. Caan, for example, utilized Philpott, Bills, Stoll and Meeks (PBSM) as his business manager. PBSM would:

·       Receive all Caan’s mail

·       Pay his bills

·       Send correspondence

·       Prepare his tax returns

·       Act as liaison with his financial advisors, attorneys, and accountants

I wish.

Caan had 2 IRAs at UBS. One was a regular, traditional, Mayberry-style IRA.

The second one owned a hedge fund.

The tax Code requires the IRA trustee or custodian to file reports every year. You probably have seen them: how much you contributed over the last year, or the balance in the IRA at year-end. Innocuous enough, except possibly for that year-end thing. Think nontraditional asset. How do you put a value on it? It depends, I suppose. It is easy enough to look up the price of gold. What if the asset is trickier: undeveloped land outside Huntsville, Alabama – or a hedge fund?

UBS had Caan sign an agreement for the IRA and its hedge fund.

The Client must furnish to the Custodian in writing the fair market value of each Investment annually by the 15th day of each January, valued as of the preceding December 31st, and within twenty days of any other written request from the Custodian, valued as of the date specified in such request. The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that a statement that the fair market value is undeterminable, or that cost basis should be used is not acceptable and the Client agrees that the fair market value furnished to the Custodian will be obtained from the issuer of the Investment (which includes the general partner or managing member thereof). The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that if the issuer is unable or unwilling to provide a fair market value, the Client shall obtain the fair market value from an independent, qualified appraiser and the valuation shall be furnished on the letterhead of the person providing the valuation.

Got it. You have to provide a number by January 15 following year-end. If it is a hassle, you have to obtain (and you pay for) an appraisal.

What if you don’t?

The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that the Custodian shall rely upon the Client’s continuing attention, and timely performance, of this responsibility. The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that if the Custodian does not receive a fair market value as of the preceding December 31, the Custodian shall distribute the Investment to the Client and issue an IRS Form 1099–R for the last available value of the Investment.

Isn’t that a peach? Hassle UBS and they will distribute the IRA and send you a 1099-R. Unless that IRA is rolled over correctly, that “distribution” is going to cost you “taxes.”

Let’s start the calendar.

March 2015

UBS contacted the hedge fund for a value.

June 2015

Margiotta left UBS for Merrill Lynch.

August 2015

Striking out, UBS contacted PBSM for a value. 

October 2015

Hearing nothing, UBS sent PBSM a letter saying UBS was going to resign as IRA custodian in November. 

October 2015

Margiotta had Caan sign paperwork to transfer the IRAs from UBS to Merrill Lynch.

There was a problem: all the assets were transferred except for the hedge fund.

December 2015

UBS sent PBSM a letter saying that it had distributed the hedge fund to Caan.

January 2016

UBS sent a 1099-R.

March 2016

Caan’s accountant at PBSM sent an e-mail to Merrill Lynch asking why the hedge fund still showed UBS as custodian.

December 2016

Margiotta requested the hedge fund liquidate the investment and send the cash to Merrill Lynch. 

November 2017

The IRS sent the computer matching letter wanting tax on the IRA distribution. How did the IRS know about it? Because UBS sent that 1099-R.

The IRS wanted taxes of almost $780 grand, with penalties over $155 grand.

That caught everyone’s attention.

July 2018

Caan requested a private letter ruling from the IRS.

Caan wanted mitigation from an IRA rollover that went awry. This would be a moment for PBSM (or Merrill) to throw itself under the bus: taxpayer relied on us as experts to execute the transaction and was materially injured by our error or negligence….

That is not wanted they requested, though. They requested a waiver of the 60-day requirement for rollover of an IRA distribution.

I get it: accept that UBS correctly issued a 1099 for the distribution but argue that fairness required additional time to transfer the money to Merrill Lynch.

There is a gigantic technical issue, though.

Before that, I have a question: where was PBSM during this timeline? Caan was paying them to open and respond to his mail, including hiring and coordinating experts as needed. Somebody did a lousy job.

The Court wondered the same thing.

Both Margiotta and the PBSM accountant argued they never saw the letters from UBS until litigation started. Neither had known about UBS making a distribution.

Here is the Court:

            We do not find that portion of either witness’ testimony credible.

Explain, please.

We find it highly unlikely that PBSM received all mail from UBS— statements, the Form 1099–R, and other correspondence—except for the key letters (which were addressed to PBSM). Additionally, the March 2016 email between Ms. Cohn and Mr. Margiotta suggests that both of them knew of UBS’s representations that it had distributed the P&A Interest. It seems far more likely that there was simply a lack of communication and coordination between the professionals overseeing Mr. Caan’s affairs, especially given the timing of UBS’s letters, Mr. Margiotta’s move from UBS to Merrill Lynch, and the emails between Mr. Margiotta and Ms. Cohn. If all parties believed that UBS was still the P&A Interest’s custodian, why did no one follow up with UBS when it ceased to mail account statements for the IRAs? And why, if everyone was indeed blindsided by the Form 1099–R, did no one promptly follow up with UBS regarding it? (That followup did not occur until after the IRS issued its Form CP2000.) The Estate has offered no satisfactory explanation to fill these holes in its theory.

I agree with the Court.

I think that PBSM and/or Merrill Lynch should have thrown themselves under the bus.

But I would probably still have lost. Why? Look at this word salad:

        408(d) Tax treatment of distributions.

         (3)  Rollover contribution.

An amount is described in this paragraph as a rollover contribution if it meets the requirements of subparagraphs (A) and (B).

(A)  In general. Paragraph (1) does not apply to any amount paid or distributed out of an individual retirement account or individual retirement annuity to the individual for whose benefit the account or annuity is maintained if-

(i)  the entire amount received (including money and any other property) is paid into an individual retirement account or individual retirement annuity (other than an endowment contract) for the benefit of such individual not later than the 60th day after the day on which he receives the payment or distribution; or

(ii)  the entire amount received (including money and any other property) is paid into an eligible retirement plan for the benefit of such individual not later than the 60th day after the date on which the payment or distribution is received, except that the maximum amount which may be paid into such plan may not exceed the portion of the amount received which is includible in gross income (determined without regard to this paragraph).

I highlighted the phrase “including money and any other property.” There is a case (Lemishow) that read a “same property” requirement into that phrase.

What does that mean in non-gibberish?

It means that if you took cash and property out of UBS, then the same cash and property must go into Merrill Lynch.

Isn’t that what happened?

No.

What came out of UBS?

Well, one thing was that hedge fund that caused this ruckus. UBS said it distributed the hedge fund to Caan. They even issued him a 1099-R for it.

What went into Merrill Lynch?

Margiotta requested the hedge fund sell the investment and send the cash to Merrill Lynch.

Cash went into Merrill Lynch.

What went out was not the same as what went in.

Caan (his estate, actually) was taxable on the hedge fund coming out of the UBS IRA.

Dumb. Unnecessary. Expensive.

Our case this time was Estate of James E. Caan v Commissioner, 161 T.C. No. 6, filed October 18, 2023.


Sunday, May 8, 2022

Part Time Bookkeeper, Big Time Penalty

 

We filed another petition with the Tax Court this week.

For a client new to the firm.

Much of this unfortunately was ICDIM: I can do it myself. The client did not understand how the IRS matches information. There was an oddball one-off transaction, resulting in nonstandard tax reporting. Stir in some you-do-not-know-what-you-do-not-know (YDNKWYDNK), some COVIDIRS202020212022 and now I am involved.

I am looking at case that just screams YDNKWYDNK.

Here is part of the first paragraph:

This case is before the Court on a Petition for review of a Notice of Determination Concerning Collection Action(s) Under Section 6320 and/or 6330, dated February 13, 2018 (notice of determination). The notice of determination sustained a notice of federal tax lien (NFTL) filing (NFTL filing) with respect to trust fund recovery penalties (TFRPs) under section 6672. The TFRPs were assessed against petitioner for failing to collect and pay over employment taxes owed by Urgent Care Center, Inc. (Urgent Care), for taxable quarters ending June 30 and September 30, 2014 (periods at issue), resulting in outstanding liabilities of $6, 184.23 and $4, 190.77, respectively.

That section 6330 is hard procedural, and it is going to hurt.

Mr Kazmi was a bookkeeper. He worked part-time at Urgent Care. Urgent Care did not remit employment taxes for a stretch, and unfortunately that stretch included the period when Mr Kazmi was there.

We are talking the big boy penalty, otherwise known as the responsible person penalty. The point of the penalty is to migrate the tax due to someone who had enough authority and responsibility to have paid the IRS but chose not to.

Mr Kazmi had no ownership interest in Urgent Care. He was not an officer. He was not a signatory on any bank accounts. He had no authority to decide who got paid. At all times he worked under the authority of the person who owned the place (Dr Senno). What he did have was a tax power of attorney.

Folks, I probably have a thousand tax powers of attorney out there.

Sounds to me like Mr Kazmi was the least responsible person (at least for payroll taxes) at Urgent Care.

The IRS Revenue Officer (RO) thought otherwise and on December 16, 2015 issued Mr Kazmi a letter 1153, a letter which said “tag, you are a responsible party; have a nice day.”

From what I am reading, this was a preposterous position. I generally have respect for ROs, but this one is a bad apple.  

Still, there are consequences.

Procedurally Mr Kazmi had 60 days to challenge the 1153.

He did not.

Why?

He did not know what he did not know.

A little time passed and the IRS came for its money. It wanted a lien. It also wanted a vanilla waffle ice cream cone.

Mr Kazmi yelled: Halt! He filed for a Collection Due Process (CDP) hearing. In the paperwork he included the obvious:

I am just a part-time bookkeeper. I am not responsible for collection or accounting or making payments for any tax payments for Urgent Care.

Makes sense.

Doesn’t matter.

He did not know what he did not know.

Let’s talk about the “one bite at the apple” rule.  In the current context, the rule means that a taxpayer cannot challenge an underlying liability if he/she already had a prior opportunity to do so.

One bite.

Mr Kazmi had his one bite when he received his letter 1153. You remember – the one he blew off.

He was now in CDP wanting to challenge the penalty. He wanted a second bite.

Not going to get it.

CDP was happy to talk about a payment plan and deadbeat taxpayers and whatnot. What it wouldn’t do was talk about whether Mr Kazmi deserved the penalty chop to begin with.

I am not a fan of such hard procedural. The vast majority of us will go a lifetime having no interaction with the IRS, excepting perhaps a minor notice now and then. It seems unreasonable to hold an average someone to stringent and obscure rules, rules that most attorneys and CPAs – unless they are tax specialists – would themselves be unaware of.

Still, it is what it is.

Does Mr Kazmi have any options left?

I think so.

Maybe a request for reconsideration.

Odds? So-so, maybe less.

A liability offer in compromise?

I like that one better.

Folks, it would have been much easier to pop this balloon back when the IRS trotted out that inappropriate letter 1153.

Mr Kazmi did not know what he did not know.

Our case this time was Kazmi v Commissioner, T.C. Memo 2022-13.

  

Sunday, July 18, 2021

A Day Trader and Wash Losses

 

We have had a difficult time with the tax return of someone who dove into the deep end of the day-trading pool last year. The year-end Fidelity statement reported the trades, but the calculation of gain and losses was way off. The draft return landed on my desk showing a wash loss of about $2.5 million. Problem: the client was trading approximately $250 grand in capital. She would have known if she lost $2.5 million as either she (1) would have had a capital call, (2) used margin, or (3) done a bit of both.

Let’s talk about wash sales.

The rule was created in 1921 because of a too-favorable tax strategy.

Let’s say that you own a stock. You really believe in it and have no intention of parting with it. You get near the end of the year and you are reviewing your to-date capital gains and losses with your advisor. You have $5 thousand in capital gains so far. That stock you like, however, took a dip and would show a $4 thousand loss … if you sold it. The broker hatches a plan.

“This is what we will do” says the broker. We will sell the stock on December 30 and buy it back on January 2. You will be out of the stock for a few days, but it should not move too much. What it will do is allow us to use that $4 thousand loss to offset the $5 thousand gain.”

It is a great plan.

Too great, in fact. Congress caught wind and changed the rules. If you sell a stock at a loss AND buy the same or substantially identical stock either

·      30 days before or

·      30 days after …

… the sale creating the loss, you will have a wash sale. What the tax law does is grab the loss ($4 thousand in our example) and add it to the basis of the stock that you bought during the 30 day before-and-after period. The loss is not permanently lost, but it is delayed.

Mind you, it only kicks-in if you sell at a loss. Sell at a gain and the government will always take your money.

Let’s go through an example:

·      On June 8 you sell 100 shares at a loss of $600.

·      On July 3 you buy 100 shares of the same stock.

You sold at a loss. You replaced the stock within the 61-day period. You have a wash loss. The tax Code will disallow the $600 loss on the June 8 trade and increase your basis in the July 3 trade by $600. The $600 loss did not disappear, but it is waiting until you sell that July 3 position.

Problem: you day trade. You cannot go 48 hours without trading in-and-out of your preferred group of stocks.

You will probably have a lot of wash sales. If you didn’t, you might want to consider quitting your day job and launching a hedge fund.

Problem: do this and you can blow-up the year-end tax statement Fidelity sends you. That is how I have a return on my desk showing $2.5 million of losses when the client had “only” $250 grand in the game.

I want to point something out.

Let’s return to our example and change the dates.

·      You already own 100 shares of a stock

·      On June 8 you buy another 100 shares

·      On July 3 you sell 100 shares at a loss

This too is a wash. Remember: 30 days BEFORE and after. It is a common mistake.

The “substantially identical” stock requirement can be difficult to address in practice. Much of the available guidance comes from Revenue Rulings and case law, leaving room for interpretation. Let’s go through a few examples.

·      You sell and buy 100 shares of Apple. That is easy: wash sale.

·      You sell 100 shares of Apple and buy 100 shares of Microsoft. That is not a wash as the stocks are not the same.

·      You sell 30-year Apple bonds and buy 10-year Apple bonds. This is not a wash, as bonds of different maturities are not considered substantially identical, even if issued by the same company.

·      You sell Goldman Sachs common stock and buy Goldman Sachs preferred. This is not a wash, as a company’s common and preferred stock are not considered substantially identical.

·      You sell 100 shares of American Funds Growth Fund and buy 100 shares of Fidelity Growth Company. The tax law gets murky here. There are all kinds of articles about portfolio overlap and whatnot trying to interpret the “substantially identical” language in the area of mutual funds.  Fortunately, the IRS has not beat the drums over the years when dealing with funds. I, for example, would consider the management team to be a significant factor when buying an actively-managed mutual fund. I would hesitate to consider two actively-managed funds as substantially identical when they are run by different teams. I would consider two passively-managed index funds, by contrast, as substantially identical if they tracked the same index.  

·      You sell 100 shares of iShares S&P 500 ETF and buy the Vanguard S&P 500 ETF.  I view this the same as two index mutual funds tracking the same index: the ETFs are substantially identical.

·      Let’s talk options. Say that you sell 100 shares of a stock and buy a call on the same stock (a call is the option to buy a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax Code considers a stock sale followed by the purchase of a call to be substantially identical.

·      Let’s continue with the stock/call combo. What if you reverse the order: sell the call for a loss and then buy the stock? You have a different answer: the IRS does not consider this a wash.

·      Staying with options, let’s say that you sell 100 shares of stock and sell a put on the same stock (a put is the option to sell a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax consequence of a put option is not as bright-line as a call option. The IRS looks at whether the put is “likely to be exercised,” generally interpreted as being “in the money.”

Puts can be confusing, so let’s walk through an example. Selling means that somebody pays me money. Somebody does that for the option of requiring me to buy their stock at a set price for a set period. Say they pay me $4 a share for the option of selling to me at $55 a share. Say the stock goes to $49 a share. Their breakeven is $51 a share ($55 minus $4). They can sell to me at net $51 or sell at the market for $49.  Folks, they are selling the stock to me. That put is “in-the-money.”  

Therefore, if I sell a put when it is in-the-money, I very likely have something substantially identical.

There are other rules out there concerning wash sales.

·      You sell the stock and your spouse buys the stock. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock in your Fidelity account and buy it in your Vanguard account. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock and your IRA buys the stock. All right, that one is not as obvious, but the IRS considers that a wash. I get it: one is taxable and the other is tax-deferred. But the IRS says it is a wash. I am not the one making the rules here.

·      There is a proportional rule. If you sell 100 shares at a loss and buy only 40 shares during the relevant 61-day period, then 40% (40/100) of the total loss will be disallowed as a wash.

Let’s circle back to our day trader. The term “trader” has a specific meaning in the tax Code. You might consider someone a trader because they buy and sell like a madman. Even so, the tax Code has a bias to NOT consider one a trader. There are numerous cases where someone trades on a regular, continuous and substantial basis – maybe keeping an office and perhaps even staff - but the IRS does not consider them a trader. Maybe there is a magic number that will persuade the IRS - 200 trading days a year, $10 million dollars in annual trades, a bazillion individual trades – but no one knows.

There is however one sure way to have the IRS recognize someone as a trader. It is the mark-to-market election. The wash loss rule will not apply, but one will pay tax on all open positions at year-end. Tax nerds refer to this as a “mark,” hence the name of the election.

The mark pretends that you sold everything at the end of the year, whether you actually did or did not. It plays pretend but with your wallet. This tax treatment is different from the general rule, the one where you actually have to sell (or constructively sell) something before the IRS can tax you.

Also, the election is permanent; one can only get out of it with IRS permission.

A word of caution: read up and possibly seek professional advice if you are considering a mark election. This is nonroutine stuff – even for a tax pro. I have been in practice for over 35 years, and I doubt I have seen a mark election a half-dozen times.

Sunday, April 26, 2020

IRA Changes For 2020


 The issue came up last week with a retired client, so let’s talk about it.

What is going on in 2020 with your IRAs?

There are several things here, so let’s go step-by-step:

(1)  Do you have to take a minimum required distribution (MRD) if you turned 70 1/2 in 2020?

ANSWER: No. The new age requirement is age 72.

(2)  What if I turned 70 ½ in 2019 and delayed my initial MRD until 2020?

ANSWER: Thanks to the CARES Act, that initial MRD is delayed one more year – until 2021.

(3)   I am well over 70 ½.  Do I have a MRD for 2020?

ANSWER: No. You can take money out, but you are not required to.

(4)  What if I already took out my MRD?

ANSWER: There are two answers, depending on when you took the MRD.

(a) If you took the MRD in January 2020, there is nothing you can do at this point.

(b)  If you took the MRD after January 31, 2020, you have until July 15, 2020 to return the money.

BTW there is a possible tax trap here. You are allowed only one non-trustee-to-trustee rollover (meaning you received and cashed the check with the intent of paying it back within 60 days) within a rolling 12-month period. If you did this in 2019, you need to check whether you are caught within this 12-month dragnet.

(5)  I have an inherited IRA account. Is there any change for me?

ANSWER: If the decedent passed away before 2020, you do not have an MRD for 2020.

There is a technical point in here if one was waiting five years before emptying the inherited IRS account: 2020 will not be counted as a year. In effect, you now have six years to empty the account rather than five.

(6)  I am having cash-flow issues as a consequence of the virus-related lockdown. I am thinking about tapping my IRA in order to get through. Is there something for me?

ANSWER: There are several changes.

(1) The 10% penalty for pre-age-59 ½ payouts for COVID-related reasons is waived on distributions up to $100,000.

(2) The income tax on the distribution still applies, but the tax can be paid over three years.

(3) And you also have 3 years to put the money back in the IRA. If you do, the money restored will be treated like a qualified rollover.

a.    Remember, this is taking place over 3 years. It is possible that you will have paid income tax on some or all of the money you restore in your IRA. If so, you can file an amended return and get your income tax back.

(7)  I am taking “substantially equal periodic payments” from my IRA. I am under age 59 ½ and needed the money. Is there a break for me?

ANSWER: A SEPP program allows one to avoid the penalty for early withdrawals, but it comes at a price: on has to take withdrawals over a given period of time.

A SEPP is not the same as a MRD, so the new rules do not apply to you.

(8)  Is it too late to fund my IRA for 2019?

ANSWER: Normally, you have until April 15 of the following year to fund an IRA. For 2019, that deadline has been extended to July 15, 2020.

Saturday, June 8, 2019

Trust Fund Penalty When Your Boss Is The U.S. Government


You may be aware that bad things can happen if an employer fails to remit payroll taxes withheld from employees’ paychecks. There are generally three federal payroll taxes involved when discussing payroll and withholding:

(1)  Federal income taxes withheld
(2)  FICA taxes withheld
(3)  Employer’s share of FICA taxes

The first two are considered “trust fund” taxes. They are paid by the employee, and the employer is merely acting as agent in their eventual remittance to the IRS. The third is the employer’s own money, so it is not considered “trust fund.”

Let’s say that the employer is having a temporary (hopefully) cash crunch. It can be tempting to borrow these monies for more urgent needs, like meeting next week’s payroll (sans the taxes), paying rent and keeping the lights on.  Hopefully the company can catch-up before too long and that any damage is minimal.

I get it.

The IRS does not.

There is an excellent reason: the trust fund money does not belong to the employer. It is the employees’ money.  The IRS considers it theft.

Triggering one the biggest penalties in the Code: the trust fund penalty.

We have in the past referred to it as the “big boy” penalty, and you want nothing to do with it. It brings two nasty traits:

(1)  The rate is 100%. Yep, the penalty is equal to the trust fund taxes themselves.
(2)  The IRS can go after whoever is responsible, jointly or severally.

Let’s expand on the second point. Let’s say that there are three people at the company who can sign checks and decide who gets paid. The IRS will – as a generalization – consider all three responsible persons for purposes of the penalty. The IRS can go after one, two, or all three. Whoever they go after can be held responsible for all of the trust fund taxes – 100% - not just their 1/3 share. The IRS wants its money, and the person who just ponied 100% is going to have to separately sue the other two for their share. The IRS does not care about that part of the story.

How do you defend against this penalty?

It is tough if you have check-signing authority and can prioritize who gets paid. The IRS will want to know why you did not prioritize them, and there are very few acceptable responses to that question.

Let’s take a look at the Myers case.

Steven Myers was the CFO and co-president of two companies. The two were in turn owned by another company which was licensed by the Small Business Administration as a Small Business Investment Company (SBIC).  The downside to this structure is that the SBA can place the SBIC into receivership (think bankruptcy). The SBA did just that.

In 2009 the two companies Myers worked for failed to remit payroll taxes.

Oh oh.

However, it was an SBA representative – remember, the SBA is running the parent company – who told Myers to prioritize vendors other than the IRS.

Meyers did so.

And the IRS slapped him with the big boy penalty.
QUESTION: Do you think Myers has an escape, especially since he was following the orders of the SBA?
At first it seems that there is an argument, since it wasn’t just any boss who was telling him not to pay. It was a government agency.

However, precedence is a mile long where the Court has slapped down the my-boss-told-me-not-to-pay argument. Could there be a different answer when the boss is the government itself?

The Court did not take long in reaching its decision:
So, the narrow question before us is whether …. applies with equal force when a government agency receiver tells a taxpayer not to pay trust fund taxes. We hold that it does. We cannot apply different substantive law simply because the receiver in this case was the SBA."
Myers owed the penalty.

What do you do if you are in this position?

One possibility is to terminate your check-signing authority and relinquish decision-making authority over who gets paid.

And if you cannot?

You have to quit.

I am not being flippant. You really have to quit. Unless you are making crazy money, you are not making enough to take on the big-boy penalty.

Tuesday, July 24, 2018

What Is Unclaimed Property?


I was reading an IRS Revenue Ruling that made me laugh, albeit in a cynical way.

Here is the issue:
If an IRA is being sent to a state unclaimed property fund, can the IRS force the trustee to withhold and remit taxes?
There are several things going on here, beginning with: what is an unclaimed property fund?

An easy example is a deceased person’s bank account. Take Florida. If someone dies in Florida without a will and without requiring probate, you as an inheritor are going to have difficulties getting to their bank account – unless you name is also on the account. You likely have to hire an attorney to obtain a court letter to provide the bank stating that you are a valid inheritor of said bank account.

How many folks do think just leave the bank account unclaimed because it isn’t worth the cost of an attorney?

It is not just bank accounts. Unclaimed funds can include uncashed dividend or payroll checks, utility security deposits, safety deposit boxes, retirement accounts and a hundred variations thereon. The concept is that you are holding somebody else’s money, and that somebody disappears. It is referred to as dormancy, and the definition is what you would expect: there has been no activity in the account or contact with the owner for a while; account statements are returned because of an invalid address; phone numbers are no longer active.

The “while” depends on the state and the type of asset. In Ohio, an uncashed payroll check is considered dormant after one year whereas a customer overpayment requires three years.

Who reports this?

The business, of course. The business is supposed to try to locate the account owner, but sometimes there simply is no one to contact. When the dormancy period is up, the business then transfers the monies with its best available information to the state. The state holds the property until the owner comes forward to claim it.

The legal reasoning behind unclaimed property goes back to common law and real property. If one abandons real property, there is a legitimate public concern that it soon might become blighted. That concern prompts the transfer (the nerd term is “escheat”) of the abandoned property to the Crown – or, these days, to the State.

Unclaimed property is not technically taxation, but its laws operate similarly to tax statutes.

Many states have used unclaimed property as a means to fund their coffers. Delaware is one of the most egregious offenders, with unclaimed property being its third-largest source of state revenues. Delaware can do this because it is home to so many banks.

Here is a link if you are interested in your own unclaimed property search:


Back to the IRS Revenue Ruling. Here is a short paragraph from the lead-in:
Under the facts presented, is the payment of Trustee Y of Individual C's interest in IRA O to the State J unclaimed property fund, as required by State J law, subject to federal income tax withholding under Section 3405 of the Internal Revenue Code?”
A bracing read, isn’t it? I couldn’t put it down.

Anyway, how do you think the IRS answered this question?

Pretty much the way you would expect. The IRS is getting its cut at some point, and this is as good a point as any. Send the IRS its money, Trustee Y.