Social Security And A Claim Of Right

 

I am reading a Tax Court case.

I disagree with commentary on the case.

Let’s talk about Michael Smith and his 2022 tax return.

Michael worked a couple of jobs in 2022 and reported wages of $16 grand on his individual tax return. I see that one of his employers was New York City Transit. Michael would not have gotten far in New York with only $16 grand of earnings.

He applied for Social Security disability in April 2022.

I am thinking that he worked, got injured and applied for disability.

In November 2022, the SSA sent a letter saying that he qualified for SSI retroactive to March. He received SSI of $26,802 for the year.

And in April 2023 the SSA wanted the money back.

Why?

The SSA explained:

Your disability payments were stopped as of April 2023 because we learned that you had been working since April 2022.”

Well, so much for my guess that he got injured and stopped working.

Michael repaid what he could and set up a payment plan for the balance.

What makes this a tax case is that Michael left the SSI off his 2022 tax return.

Social security disability is taxed the same as regular social security. There is an unfortunate tax maze here, I admit. Up to a certain income, 50% of one’s social security is taxable. Keep increasing income and up to 85% is taxable. Land somewhere in-between and you almost need software to do the math. It is not a pretty area of the tax Code, frankly.

Michael explained that he omitted the social security because it was “an accidental overpayment” and was “repaid … in full.” He considered it more a loan than taxable income.

I get it, but Michael ran face first into a basic principle in taxation: you have to report what happened during the taxable period. In this case the period was 2022. By the end of 2022 he did not know that he would be required to return the money to the SSA. This was income free-and-clear when the New Year’s ball dropped.

OK, you ask: when would Michael make it right on his taxes?

In 2023, when he found out and returned the money.

How would Michael make it right?

He would do a special calculation on his 2023 return.

The concept here is called “claim of right,” and it goes back to a famous 1932 tax case. It was formalized into the tax Code in 1954 as Section 1341.

Have you ever read or heard a case about a corporate executive or professional athlete having to return money to his/her employer or team? The tax side (almost certainly) involves Section 1341.

How does it work?

First, there have to be (at least) two tax periods at play. If Michael had learned and repaid the SSA by the end of 2022 there would be no tax issue. It is flipping the calendar and starting another period that sets up the claim of right.

Second, there are two calculations, and you use the one yielding the smaller tax.

You run the tax for the year (of repayment) with the deduction, and

You (re)run the tax for the original year (that is, the claim of right year) with the deduction.

You use the smaller tax.

And yes, there can be trap here.

What if the repayment year has much less (or worse, no) income than the claim of right year?

You have a problem because the calculation takes the smaller of the two amounts. The flaw is baked into Section 1341.

The commentary I read speculated that the case may have involved a statute of limitations issue.

Nope, methinks.

Our secret mystery obscure Section 1341 kicks-in for the repayment year, which is 2023 in this case. The 2023 return was due on April 15, 2024. Let’s skip extensions and whatnot: the earliest that statute will expire is April 15, 2027.

No, I don’t think that was it.

Michael went for a long shot and hoped to exclude the income from his 2022 rather than 2023. Why?

Because Michael had no (or little) income in 2023 to absorb the Section 1341 lesser-of calculation.

I am again wondering if Michael was truly disabled in 2022 and subsequently got run over by both the SSA and IRS.

Our case this time was Smith v Commissioner, T.C. Memo 2026-25.

No Tax On Social Security

 

Is not. 

For decades, social security benefits were not taxable at all. 

This changed with the Social Security Amendment of 1983, with the intent to shore up the social security trust fund. Beginning in 1984, if one’s income exceeded certain stairsteps ($25,000 for singles and $32,000 for marrieds), then benefits could be up to 50% taxable. 

Flip the calendar and The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993 raised the taxable portion up to 85% and added two more stairsteps ($34,000 for singles and $44,000 for marrieds). 

COMMENT: The taxation of social security is Congressional pratfall. There are two separate calculations here. The first calculation starts taxing benefits at $25,000 (for singles; $32,000 for marrieds) up to 50 percent. If your income keeps going, then you hit the second stairstep ($34,000 for singles; $44,000 for marrieds) up to 85%. Fall in between these two phaseout zones and you may want to use software to prepare your return. 

COMMENT: BTW, Congress has never inflation-adjusted those 1984 or 1993 dollars. 

No tax on social security became a political slogan during the presidential election. I have heard the phrase repeated since then, but it is not accurate. 

It would be more accurate to describe it as an age-based deduction. 

Take a look at the tax provision in its feral state:

 

SEC. 70103. TERMINATION OF DEDUCTION FOR PERSONAL EXEMPTIONS OTHER THAN TEMPORARY SENIOR DEDUCTION

 

(a)(3)(C) Deduction for seniors

 

(i)                   In general.—In the case of a taxable year beginning before January 1, 2029, there shall be allowed a deduction in an amount equal to $6,000 for each qualified individual with respect to the taxpayer.

(ii)                Qualified individual.—For purposes of clause (i), the term ‘qualified individual’ means—

(I)                  the taxpayer, if the taxpayer has attained age 65 before the close of the taxable year, and

(II)                in the case of a joint return, the taxpayer’s spouse, if such spouse has attained age 65 before the close of the taxable year.

(iii)               Limitation based on modified adjusted gross income.

(I)                  In general.—In the case of any taxpayer for any taxable year, the $6,000 amount in clause (i) shall be reduced (but not below zero) by 6 percent of so much of the taxpayer’s modified adjusted gross income as exceeds $75,000 ($150,000 in the case of a joint return).

(II)                (II) Modified adjusted gross income.—For purposes of this clause, the term ‘modified adjusted gross income’ means the adjusted gross income of the taxpayer for the taxable year increased by any amount excluded from gross income under section 911, 931, or 933.

(iv)               Social security number required.

(I)                  In general.—Clause (i) shall not apply with respect to a qualified individual unless the taxpayer includes such qualified individual’s social security number on the return of tax for the taxable year.

(II)                Social security number.—For purposes of subclause (I), the term ‘social security number’ has the meaning given such term in section 24(h)(7).

(v)                 Married individuals.—If the taxpayer is a married individual (within the meaning of section 139, this subparagraph shall apply only if the taxpayer and the taxpayer’s spouse file a joint return for the taxable year.”

What do I see? 

•  There is no mention of social security benefits.
•  There is no mention, in fact, of retirement income at all.
•  You do have to be at least age 65 to qualify.
•  The deduction is (up to) $6,000 per qualifying individual.
•   Make too much money ($75,000 for singles and $150,000 for marrieds) and you start losing the deduction. The deduction phases-out completely at $150,000 (singles) and $250,000 (marrieds).
•  If you are married, you must file jointly. Married filing separately will not work here.
• The only mention of social security is that one must include one’s social security number on the tax return, otherwise the IRS will consider it a math error and send you a bill for taxes due.

What do I not see?

• No tax on social security.

I get it: for many if not most people, social security benefits would not have been taxable anyway because of the stairsteps, the increased standard deduction and the additional standard deduction for taxpayers age 65 and over. I would prefer that we use the English language with more precision, but such is not our fate. 

We didn’t even mention the insolvency of the social security system itself. 

Take advantage if you can, as the deduction has a shelf life of only four years. Granted, a future Congress can extend (and re-extend) this deduction ad infinitum, but I suspect that will not happen here.

 

Owing Tax on Social Security Not Received

 

I am spending more time talking about social security.

The clients and I are aging. If it does not affect me, it affects them – and that affects me.

Social security has all manners of quirks.

For example, say that one worked for an employer which does not pay into social security. There are many - think teachers, who are covered instead by state plans. It is common enough to mix and match employers over the course of a career, meaning that some work may have been covered by social security and some was not. What does this mean when it comes time to claim benefits?

Well, if you are the employee in question, you are going to learn about the windfall elimination provision (WEP), which is a haircut to one’s social security for this very fact pattern.

What if this instead is your spouse and you are claiming spousal benefits? Well, you are going to learn about the “government pension offset,” which is the same fish but wrapped in different paper.

What if you are disabled?

Kristen Ecret was about to find out.

She worked a registered nurse until 2014, when she suffered an injury and became medically disabled. She started receiving New York workers compensation benefits.

Oh, she also applied for social security benefits in 2015.

In December 2017 (think about it) she heard back from the SSA. She was entitled to benefits, and those benefits were retroactive to 2015.

Should be a nice check.

In January 2018 she received a Form SSA-1099 for 14,392, meaning the SSA was reporting to the IRS that she received benefits of $14,332 during 2017.

But there was a bigger problem.

Kristen had received nothing – zippo, nada, emptitadad – from SSA. The SSA explained that her benefits had been hoovered by something called the “workers’ compensation offset.”

She filed a request for reconsideration of her benefits.

She got some relief.

It’s a year later and she received a Form SSA-1099 for 2018. It reported that she received benefits of $71,918, of which $19,322 was attributable to 2018. The balance – $52,596 – was for retroactive benefits.

Except ….

Only $20,749 had been deposited to her bank account. Another $5,375 was paid to an attorney or withheld as federal income tax. The difference ($45,794) was not paid on account of the workers’ compensation offset.

Something similar happened for 2019.

Let’s stay with 2019.

Instead of using the SSA-1099, Kristen reported taxable social security on her 2019 joint income tax return of $5,202, which is 85% of $6,120, the only benefits she received in cash.

I get it.

The IRS of course caught it, as this is basic computer matching.

The IRS had records of her “receiving” benefits of $55,428.

The difference? Yep: the “workers’ compensation offset.”

There was some chop in the water, as a portion of the benefits received in 2019 were for years 2016 through 2018, and both sides agreed that portion was not taxable. But that left $19,866 which the IRS went after with vigor.

The Court walked us through the life, times and humor of the workers’ compensation offset, including this little hummable ditty:

For purposes of this section, if, by reason of section 224 of the Social Security Act [i.e., 42 U.S.C. § 424a] . . . any social security benefit is reduced by reason of the receipt of a benefit under a workmen’s compensation act, the term ‘social security benefit’ includes that portion of such benefit received under the workmen’s compensation act which equals such reduction."

Maybe the Court will find a way ….

            Section 86(d) compels us to agree with respondent."

The “respondent” is the IRS. No help here from the Court.

Applying the 85% inclusion ratio, we conclude that petitioners for 2019 have taxable Social Security benefits of $16,886, viz, 85% of the $19,866 in benefits that were attributable to 2019. Because petitioners on their 2019 return reported only $5,202 in taxable Social Security benefits, they must include an additional $11,684 of such benefits ($16,886 − $5,202) in their gross income."

Kristen lost.

Oh, the IRS applied an accuracy-related penalty, just to make it perfect.

We know that tax law can be erratic, ungrounded, and nonsensical. But why did Congress years ago change the tax Code to convert nontaxable disability income into taxable social security income? Was there some great loophole here they felt compelled to squash?

Our case this time was Ecret v Commissioner, T.C. Memo 2024-23.

A Day Trader and Wash Losses

 

We have had a difficult time with the tax return of someone who dove into the deep end of the day-trading pool last year. The year-end Fidelity statement reported the trades, but the calculation of gain and losses was way off. The draft return landed on my desk showing a wash loss of about $2.5 million. Problem: the client was trading approximately $250 grand in capital. She would have known if she lost $2.5 million as either she (1) would have had a capital call, (2) used margin, or (3) done a bit of both.

Let’s talk about wash sales.

The rule was created in 1921 because of a too-favorable tax strategy.

Let’s say that you own a stock. You really believe in it and have no intention of parting with it. You get near the end of the year and you are reviewing your to-date capital gains and losses with your advisor. You have $5 thousand in capital gains so far. That stock you like, however, took a dip and would show a $4 thousand loss … if you sold it. The broker hatches a plan.

“This is what we will do” says the broker. We will sell the stock on December 30 and buy it back on January 2. You will be out of the stock for a few days, but it should not move too much. What it will do is allow us to use that $4 thousand loss to offset the $5 thousand gain.”

It is a great plan.

Too great, in fact. Congress caught wind and changed the rules. If you sell a stock at a loss AND buy the same or substantially identical stock either

·      30 days before or

·      30 days after …

… the sale creating the loss, you will have a wash sale. What the tax law does is grab the loss ($4 thousand in our example) and add it to the basis of the stock that you bought during the 30 day before-and-after period. The loss is not permanently lost, but it is delayed.

Mind you, it only kicks-in if you sell at a loss. Sell at a gain and the government will always take your money.

Let’s go through an example:

·      On June 8 you sell 100 shares at a loss of $600.

·      On July 3 you buy 100 shares of the same stock.

You sold at a loss. You replaced the stock within the 61-day period. You have a wash loss. The tax Code will disallow the $600 loss on the June 8 trade and increase your basis in the July 3 trade by $600. The $600 loss did not disappear, but it is waiting until you sell that July 3 position.

Problem: you day trade. You cannot go 48 hours without trading in-and-out of your preferred group of stocks.

You will probably have a lot of wash sales. If you didn’t, you might want to consider quitting your day job and launching a hedge fund.

Problem: do this and you can blow-up the year-end tax statement Fidelity sends you. That is how I have a return on my desk showing $2.5 million of losses when the client had “only” $250 grand in the game.

I want to point something out.

Let’s return to our example and change the dates.

·      You already own 100 shares of a stock

·      On June 8 you buy another 100 shares

·      On July 3 you sell 100 shares at a loss

This too is a wash. Remember: 30 days BEFORE and after. It is a common mistake.

The “substantially identical” stock requirement can be difficult to address in practice. Much of the available guidance comes from Revenue Rulings and case law, leaving room for interpretation. Let’s go through a few examples.

·      You sell and buy 100 shares of Apple. That is easy: wash sale.

·      You sell 100 shares of Apple and buy 100 shares of Microsoft. That is not a wash as the stocks are not the same.

·      You sell 30-year Apple bonds and buy 10-year Apple bonds. This is not a wash, as bonds of different maturities are not considered substantially identical, even if issued by the same company.

·      You sell Goldman Sachs common stock and buy Goldman Sachs preferred. This is not a wash, as a company’s common and preferred stock are not considered substantially identical.

·      You sell 100 shares of American Funds Growth Fund and buy 100 shares of Fidelity Growth Company. The tax law gets murky here. There are all kinds of articles about portfolio overlap and whatnot trying to interpret the “substantially identical” language in the area of mutual funds.  Fortunately, the IRS has not beat the drums over the years when dealing with funds. I, for example, would consider the management team to be a significant factor when buying an actively-managed mutual fund. I would hesitate to consider two actively-managed funds as substantially identical when they are run by different teams. I would consider two passively-managed index funds, by contrast, as substantially identical if they tracked the same index.  

·      You sell 100 shares of iShares S&P 500 ETF and buy the Vanguard S&P 500 ETF.  I view this the same as two index mutual funds tracking the same index: the ETFs are substantially identical.

·      Let’s talk options. Say that you sell 100 shares of a stock and buy a call on the same stock (a call is the option to buy a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax Code considers a stock sale followed by the purchase of a call to be substantially identical.

·      Let’s continue with the stock/call combo. What if you reverse the order: sell the call for a loss and then buy the stock? You have a different answer: the IRS does not consider this a wash.

·      Staying with options, let’s say that you sell 100 shares of stock and sell a put on the same stock (a put is the option to sell a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax consequence of a put option is not as bright-line as a call option. The IRS looks at whether the put is “likely to be exercised,” generally interpreted as being “in the money.”

Puts can be confusing, so let’s walk through an example. Selling means that somebody pays me money. Somebody does that for the option of requiring me to buy their stock at a set price for a set period. Say they pay me $4 a share for the option of selling to me at $55 a share. Say the stock goes to $49 a share. Their breakeven is $51 a share ($55 minus $4). They can sell to me at net $51 or sell at the market for $49.  Folks, they are selling the stock to me. That put is “in-the-money.”  

Therefore, if I sell a put when it is in-the-money, I very likely have something substantially identical.

There are other rules out there concerning wash sales.

·      You sell the stock and your spouse buys the stock. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock in your Fidelity account and buy it in your Vanguard account. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock and your IRA buys the stock. All right, that one is not as obvious, but the IRS considers that a wash. I get it: one is taxable and the other is tax-deferred. But the IRS says it is a wash. I am not the one making the rules here.

·      There is a proportional rule. If you sell 100 shares at a loss and buy only 40 shares during the relevant 61-day period, then 40% (40/100) of the total loss will be disallowed as a wash.

Let’s circle back to our day trader. The term “trader” has a specific meaning in the tax Code. You might consider someone a trader because they buy and sell like a madman. Even so, the tax Code has a bias to NOT consider one a trader. There are numerous cases where someone trades on a regular, continuous and substantial basis – maybe keeping an office and perhaps even staff - but the IRS does not consider them a trader. Maybe there is a magic number that will persuade the IRS - 200 trading days a year, $10 million dollars in annual trades, a bazillion individual trades – but no one knows.

There is however one sure way to have the IRS recognize someone as a trader. It is the mark-to-market election. The wash loss rule will not apply, but one will pay tax on all open positions at year-end. Tax nerds refer to this as a “mark,” hence the name of the election.

The mark pretends that you sold everything at the end of the year, whether you actually did or did not. It plays pretend but with your wallet. This tax treatment is different from the general rule, the one where you actually have to sell (or constructively sell) something before the IRS can tax you.

Also, the election is permanent; one can only get out of it with IRS permission.

A word of caution: read up and possibly seek professional advice if you are considering a mark election. This is nonroutine stuff – even for a tax pro. I have been in practice for over 35 years, and I doubt I have seen a mark election a half-dozen times.