Whose Job Is It Anyway?

One of our accountants asked me recently:

R:      Do you think [so and so] qualifies as a real estate professional?

CTG: I do not know [so and so]. Tell me a little.

R:      Husband pulls a W-2.

CTG: How much and how many hours?

R:      Blah blah dollars.

CTG: Works in real estate?

R:      Nah.

CTG: Hours?

R:      Maybe 2,000.

CTG: Is the wife in real estate?

R:      No.

I have told you (almost) everything you need to answer the question.

Let’s look at the Warren case.

James Warren organized Warren Assisted Living, LLC in 2015.

He purchased a group home in 2016.

He started repairing the home almost immediately.

In 2017 he worked at Lockheed Martin for 1,913 hours as an engineer.

On his 2017 tax return he claimed a $41 thousand-plus loss from the group home. He claimed he was a real estate professional.

Warren did not keep time logs.

What sets this up are the passive activity rules under Section 469. As initially passed, that Section considered rental activities (with minimal exceptions) to be “per se” passive.

The passive activity rules would then stifle your ability to claim losses. You – for the most part – had to wait until you had income from the activity. You could then use the losses against the income. 

Well, that caught real estate landlords and others around the country by surprise. When you do one thing, it is difficult to have a Congressional staffer decide that your thing is not a regular thing like the next thing across the street.

Congress made a change.

(c)(7)  Special rules for taxpayers in real property business.

 

(A)  In general. If this paragraph applies to any taxpayer for a taxable year-

 

(i)  paragraph (2) shall not apply to any rental real estate activity of such taxpayer for such taxable year, and

(ii)  this section shall be applied as if each interest of the taxpayer in rental real estate were a separate activity.

 

Notwithstanding clause (ii) , a taxpayer may elect to treat all interests in rental real estate as one activity. Nothing in the preceding provisions of this subparagraph shall be construed as affecting the determination of whether the taxpayer materially participates with respect to any interest in a limited partnership as a limited partner.

 

(B)   Taxpayers to whom paragraph applies. This paragraph shall apply to a taxpayer for a taxable year if-

 

(i)  more than one-half of the personal services performed in trades or businesses by the taxpayer during such taxable year are performed in real property trades or businesses in which the taxpayer materially participates, and

(ii)  such taxpayer performs more than 750 hours of services during the taxable year in real property trades or businesses in which the taxpayer materially participates.

 

In the case of a joint return, the requirements of the preceding sentence are satisfied if and only if either spouse separately satisfies such requirements. For purposes of the preceding sentence, activities in which a spouse materially participates shall be determined under subsection (h) .

The above is called the real estate professional exception. It is a mercy release from the per se rule that would otherwise inaccurately (and unfairly) consider people who work in real estate all day to not be working at all.

It has two main parts:

(1) You have to spend at least 750 hours working in real estate, and

(2)  You have to spend more than 50% of your “working at something” total hours actually “working in real estate.”

If you are a real estate professional, you avoid the “per se” label. You have not yet escaped the passive activity rules – you still have to show that you worked - but at least you have the opportunity to present your case.

The Court looked at Warren’s 1,913 hours at Lockheed. That means he would need 3,827 total hours for real estate to be more than ½ of his total work hours. (1,913 times 2 plus 1).

First of all, 3,827 total hours means he was working at least 74 hours a week, every week, without fail, for the entire year.

Maybe. Doubt it.

Warren is going to need really good records to prove it.

Here is the Court:

Mr Warren did not keep contemporaneous logs of his time renovating the group home.”

Not good, but not necessarily fatal. I represented a client who kept Outlook and other records. She created her log after the fact but from records which themselves were contemporaneous. Mind you, we had to go to Appeals, but she won.

In preparation for trial, Mr Warren created – and presented – two time logs.”

Good grief.

The first log maintained that he worked 1,421 hours at the group home; it was created one week before trial.”

End it. That is less than his 1,913 hours at Lockheed.

The second log maintained that Mr. Warren worked 1,628 at the group home; it was created the night before trial.”

Why bother?

This was a slam dunk for the Court. They did not have to dwell on contemporaneous or competing logs or believability or whether the Bengals will turn their season around. Whether 1,421 or 1,628, he could not get to more-than-50%.

Warren lost.

As a rule of thumb, if you have a full-time W-2, it will be almost impossible to qualify as a real estate professional. The exception is when your full-time W-2 is in real estate, maybe with an employer such as CBRE or Cushman & Wakefield.  At 1,900-plus Lockheed hours, I have no idea what Warren was thinking, although I see that it was a per se case. That means he represented himself, and it shows.

I suppose one could have a W-2 and work crazy hours and meet the more-than-50% requirement, but your records should be much tighter. And skip the night before thing.

BTW another way to meet this test is by being married.

Look at (B)(ii) again:

In the case of a joint return, the requirements of the preceding sentence are satisfied if and only if either spouse separately satisfies such requirements. For purposes of the preceding sentence, activities in which a spouse materially participates shall be determined under subsection (h) .

If your spouse can meet the test (both parts), then you will qualify by riding on the shoulders of your spouse.

Our case this time was Warren v Commissioner, T.C. Summary Opinion 2024-20.

A Real Estate Course – And Dave

 

The case made me think of Dave, a friend from long ago – one of those relationships that sometimes surrenders to time, moving and distance.

Dave was going to become a real investor.

That was not his day job, of course. By day he was a sales rep for a medical technology company. And he was good at sales. He almost persuaded me to join his incipient real estate empire.

He had come across one of those real estate gurus – I cannot remember which one – who lectured about making money with other people’s money.

There was even a  3-ring binder or two which Dave gave me to read.

I was looking over a recent case decided by the Tax Court.

The case involved an engineer (Eason) and a nurse (Leisner).

At the start of 2016 they owned two residential properties. One was held for rent; the other was sold during 2016.

COMMENT: Seems to me they were already in the real estate business. It was not a primary gig, but it was a gig.

Eason lost his job during 2016.

A real estate course came to his attention, and he signed up – for the tidy amount of $41,934.

COMMENT: Say what?

In July 2016 the two formed Ashley & Makai Homes (Homes), an S corporation. Homes was formed to provide advice and guidance to real estate owners and investors.  They had business cards and stationary made and started attending some of those $40 grand-plus courses. Not too many, though, as the outfit that sponsored the courses went out of business.

COMMENT: This is my shocked face.

By 2018 Eason and Leisner abandoned whatever hopes they had for Homes. They never made a dime of income.

You know that $40 grand-plus showed up on the S corporation tax return.

The IRS disallowed the deduction.

And tacked on penalties for the affront.

This is the way, said the IRS.

And so we have a pro se case in the Tax Court.

Respondent advances various reasons why petitioners are not entitled to any deductions …”

The respondent will almost always be the IRS in these cases, as the it is the taxpayer who petitions the Court.

And we have discussed “pro se” many times. It generally means that a taxpayer is representing himself/herself, but that is not fully accurate. A taxpayer can be advised by a professional, but if that professional has not taken and passed the exam to practice before the Tax Court the matter is still considered pro se.

Back to the Court:

          … we need to focus on only one [reason].”

That reason is whether a business had started.

Neither Homes nor petitioners reported any income from a business activity related to the disputed deductions, presumably because none was earned.”

This is not necessarily fatal, though.

The absence of income, in and of itself, does not compel a finding that a business has not yet started if other activities show that it has.”

This seems a reasonably low bar to me: take steps to market the business, whatever those words mean in context. If the context is to acquire clients, then perhaps a website or targeted advertising in the local real estate association newsletter.

Here, however, the absence of income coupled with the absence of any activity that shows that services were offered or provided to clients or customers […] supports respondent’s position that the business had not yet started by the close of the year.”

Yeah, no. The Court noted that a business deduction requires a business. Since a business had not started, no business deduction was available.

The Court disagreed with any penalties, though. There was enough there that a reasonable person could have decided either way.

I agree with the Court, but I also think that just a slight change could have changed the outcome in the taxpayers’ favor.

How?

Here’s one:  remember that Eason and Leisner owned a rental property together?

What if they had broadened Homes’ principal activity to include real estate rental and transferred the property to the S corporation? Homes would have been in business at that point. The tax issue then would have been expansion of the business, not the start of one.

Our case this time was Eason and Leisner v Commissioner, T.C. Summary Opinion 2024-17.

Renting Real Estate And Self-Employment Tax

 

I was looking at a tax return recently. There was an issue there that I did not immediately recognize.

Let’s go over it.

The client is a new venue for cocktail parties, formal dinners, corporate meetings, bridal showers, wedding rehearsals and receptions, and other such occasions.

The client will configure the space as you wish, but you will have to use a preselected list of caterers should you want food. There is a bar, but you will have to provide your own bartender. You can decorate, but there are strict rules on affixing decorations to walls, fixtures, and such. Nonroutine decorations must be approved in advance. You will have to bring your own sound system should you want music, as no system exists. The client will clean the space at the end of the event, but you must first remove all personal items from the property.

Somewhat specialized and not a business I would pursue, but I gave it no further thought.

The question came up: is this ordinary business income or rental income?

Another way to phrase the question is whether the income would or would not be subject to self-employment tax.

Let’s say you have a duplex. One would be hard pressed to think of a reasonable scenario where you would be paying self-employment tax, as rental income from real estate is generally excepted from self-employment income.

Let’s change the facts. You own a Hyatt Hotel. Yes, it is real estate. Yes, there is rental income. This income, however, will be subject to self-employment tax.

What is the difference? Well, the scale of the activity is one, obviously. Another is the provision of additional services. You may bring in a repairman if there were a problem at the duplex, but you are not going into the unit to wash dishes, vacuum carpets, change bed linens or provide fresh towels. There is a limit. On the other hand, who knows what concierge services at a high-end hotel might be able to provide or arrange.

We are on a spectrum, it appears. It would help to have some clarification on which services are innocuous and which are taunting the bull.

IRS Chief Counsel Advice 202151005 addressed the spectrum in the context of residential rental property.

First a warning. A CCA provides insight into IRS thinking on a topic, but that thinking is not considered precedent, nor does it constitute substantial authority in case of litigation. That is fine for us, as we have no intention of litigating anything or having a tax doctrine named after us.

Here is scenario one from the CCA:

·       You are not a real estate dealer.

·       You rent beachfront property via online marketplaces (think Airbnb).

·       You provide kitchen items, Wi-Fi, recreational equipment, prepaid ride-share vouchers to the business district and daily maid service.

Here is scenario two:

·       You are not a real estate dealer.

·       You rent out a bedroom and bathroom in your home via online marketplaces.

·       A renter has access to common areas only to enter and exit.

·       You clean the bedroom and bathroom after each renter’s stay.

I am not overwhelmed by either scenario. Scenario one offers a little more than scenario two, but neither is a stay at the Hotel Jerome.

Here is the CCA walkthrough:

·       Tax law considers rental income collected by a non-dealer to be non-self- employment income.

·       However, the law says nothing about providing services.

·       Allowable services include:

o   Those clearly required to maintain the property in condition for occupancy, and

o   Are a sufficiently insubstantial portion of the rent.

·       Nonallowable services include:

o   Those not clearly required to maintain the property in condition for occupancy, and

o   Are so substantial as to comprise a material portion of the rent.

The CCA considered scenario two to be fine.

COMMENT: I would think so. The services are minimal unless you consider ingress and egress to be substantial services.

The CCA considered scenario one not to be fine.

Why not?

·       The services are for the convenience of the occupants.

·       The services are beyond those necessary to maintain the space for occupancy.

·       The services are sufficient to constitute a material portion of the rent.       

I get the big picture: the closer you get to hotel accommodations the more likely you are to be subject to self-employment tax. I am instead having trouble with the smaller picture – the details a tax practitioner is looking for – and which signal one’s location on the spectrum.

·       Is the IRS saying that services beyond the mere availability of a bed and bathroom are the path to the dark side?

·       IRS Regulations refer to services customarily provided.

o   How is one to test customarily: with reference to nearby full-service hotels or only with other nearby online rentals?

o   In truth, did the IRS look at any nearby services in scenario one?

·       What does material portion mean?

o   Would the provision of services at a lower rent situs (say Athens, Georgia) result in a different answer from the provision of comparable services at a higher rent situs (say Aspen, Colorado)?

o   What about a different time of year? Can one provide more services during a peak rental period (say the NCAA Tournament) and not run afoul of the material portion requirement??

One wonders how much this CCA has reinforced online rental policies such as running-the-dishwasher and take-out-the-trash-when-you-leave. There is no question that I would advise an Airbnb client not to provide daily services, whatever they may be.

I also suspect why our client set up their venue the way they did.

A Charitable Deduction To An Estate

 

I had a difficult conversation with a client recently over an issue I had not seen in a while.

It involves an estate. The same issue would exist with a trust, as estates and trusts are (for the most part) taxed the same way.

Let’s set it up.

Someone passed away, hence the estate.

The estate is being probated, meaning that at least some of its assets and liabilities are under court review before payment or distribution. The estate has income while this process is going on and so files its own income tax return.

Many times, accountants will refer to this tax return as the “estate” return, but it should not be confused with the following, also called the “estate” return:

What is the difference?

Form 706 is the tax – sometimes called the death tax – on net assets when someone passes away. It is hard to trigger the death tax, as the Code presently allows a $13.6 million lifetime exclusion for combined estate and gift taxes (and twice that if one is married). Let’s be honest: $13.6 million excludes almost all of us.

Form 1041 is the income tax for the estate. Dying does not save one from income taxes.

Let’s talk about the client.

Dr W passed away unexpectedly. At death he had bank and brokerage accounts, a residence, retirement accounts, collectibles, and a farm. The estate is being probated in two states, as there is real estate in the second state. The probate has been unnecessarily troublesome. Dr W recorded a holographic will, and one of the states will not accept it.

COMMENT: Not all estate assets go through probate, by the way. Assets passing under will must be probated, but many assets do not pass under will.

What is an example of an asset that can pass outside of a will?

An IRA or 401(k).

That is the point of naming a beneficiary to your IRA or 401(k). If something happens to you, the IRA transfers automatically to the beneficiary under contract law. It does not need the permission of a probate judge.

Back to Dr W.

Our accountant prepared the Form 1041, I saw interest, dividends, capitals gains, farm income and … a whopping charitable donation.

What did the estate give away?

Books. Tons of books. I am seeing titles like these:

·       Techniques of Chinese Lacquer

·       Vergoldete Bronzen I & II

·       Pendules et Bronzes d’Ameublement

Some of these books are expensive. The donation wiped out whatever income the estate had for the year.

If the donation was deductible.

Look at the following:

§ 642 Special rules for credits and deductions.

      (c)  Deduction for amounts paid or permanently set aside for a charitable purpose.

(1)  General rule.

In the case of an estate or trust ( other than a trust meeting the specifications of subpart B), there shall be allowed as a deduction in computing its taxable income (in lieu of the deduction allowed by section 170(a) , relating to deduction for charitable, etc., contributions and gifts) any amount of the gross income, without limitation, which pursuant to the terms of the governing instrument is, during the taxable year, paid for a purpose specified in section 170(c) (determined without regard to section 170(c)(2)(A) ). If a charitable contribution is paid after the close of such taxable year and on or before the last day of the year following the close of such taxable year, then the trustee or administrator may elect to treat such contribution as paid during such taxable year. The election shall be made at such time and in such manner as the Secretary prescribes by regulations.

This not one of the well-known Code sections.

It lays out three requirements for an estate or trust to get a charitable deduction:

• Must be paid out of gross income.
• Must be paid pursuant to the terms of the governing instrument.
• Must be paid for a purpose described in IRC Sec. 170(c) without regard to Section 170(c)(2)(A). 

Let’s work backwards.

The “170(c) without …” verbiage opens up donations to foreign charities.

In general, contributions must be paid to domestic charities to be income-tax deductible. There are workarounds, of course, but that discussion is for another day. This restriction does not apply to estates, meaning they can contribute directly to foreign charities without a workaround.

This issue does not apply to Dr W.

Next, the instrument governing the estate must permit payments to charity. Without this permission, there is no income tax deduction.

I am looking at the holographic will, and there is something in there about charities. Close enough, methinks.

Finally, the donation must be from gross income. This term is usually interpreted as meaning gross taxable income, meaning sources such as municipal interest or qualified small business stock would create an issue.

The gross income test has two parts:

(1)  The donation cannot exceed the estate’s cumulative (and previously undistributed) taxable income over its existence.

(2)  The donation involves an asset acquired by that accumulated taxable income. A cash donation easily meets the test (if it does not exceed accumulated taxable income). An in-kind distribution will also qualify if the asset was acquired with cash that itself would have qualified.

The second part of that test concerns me.

Dr W gave away a ton of books.

The books were transferred to the estate as part of its initial funding. The term for these assets is “corpus,” and corpus is not gross income. Mind you, you probably could trace the books back to the doctor’s gross income, but that is not the test here.

I am not seeing a charitable deduction.

“I would not have done this had I known,” said the frustrated client.

I know.

We have talked about a repetitive issue with taxes: you do not know what you do not know.

How should this have been done?

Distribute the books to the beneficiary and let him make the donation personally. Those rules about gross income and whatnot have no equivalent when discussing donations by individuals.

What if the beneficiary does not itemize?

Understood, but you have lost nothing. The estate was not getting a deduction anyway.

The Skip Tax - Part Two

 

How does one work with the skip?

In my experience, the skip is usually the realm of the tax attorneys, although that is not to say the tax CPA does not have a role. The reason is that most skips involve trusts, and trusts are legal documents. CPAs cannot create legal documents. However, let that trust age a few decades, and it is possible that the next set of eyes to notice a technical termination or taxable distribution will be the CPA.

Let’s pause for a moment and talk about the annual exclusion and lifetime exemption.

The gift tax has an annual exclusion of $18,000 per donee per year. There is also a (combined gift and estate tax) lifetime exemption of $13.6 million per person. If you gift more than $18 grand to someone, you start carving into that $13.6 million lifetime exemption.

The skip tax has the same exclusion and exemption limits as the gift tax.

The problem is that a gift and a skip may not happen at the same time.

Let’s take two examples.

(1)  A direct skip

That is the proverbial gift to the grandchild. Let’s say that it well over $18 grand, so you must file a return with the IRS.

You gift her a $100 grand.

The gift is complete, so you file Form 709 (the gift tax return) with your individual tax return next year.

The transfer immediately dropped at least two generations, so the skip is complete. You complete the additional sections in Form 709 relating to skips. You claim the annual exclusion of $18 grand, and you apply some of the $13.6 million exemption to cover the remaining $82 grand.

Done. Directs skips are easy.

(2)  An indirect skip

Indirects are another way of saying trusts.

Remember we discussed that there is a scenario (the taxable termination) where the trust itself is responsible for the skip tax. However, there is no skip tax until the exemption is exhausted. The skip may not occur for years, even decades, down the road. How is one to know if any exemption remains?

Enter something called the “inclusion ratio.”

Let’s use an example.

(1)  You fund a trust with $16 million, and you have $4 million of (skip) lifetime exemption remaining. 

(2)  The skip calculates a ratio for this trust.

4 divided by 16 is 25%.

Seems to me that you have inoculated 25% of that trust against GST tax.

(3)  Let’s calculate another ratio.

1 minus 25% is 75%.

This is called the inclusion ratio.

It tells you how much of that trust will be exposed to the skip tax someday.

(4)  Calculate the tax. 

Let’s say that the there is a taxable termination when the trust is worth $20 million.

$20 million times 75% equals $15 million.

$15 million is exposed to the skip tax.

Let’s say the skip tax rate is 40% for the year the taxable termination occurs.

The skip tax is $6 million.

That trust is permanently tainted by that inclusion ratio.

Now, in practice this is unlikely to happen. The attorney or CPA would instead create two trusts: one for $4 million and another for $11 million. The $4 million trust would be allocated the entire remaining $4 million exemption. The ratio for this trust would be as follows:

                       4 divided by 4 equals 1

                       1 minus 1 equals -0-.

                       The inclusion ratio is zero.

                       This trust will never have skip tax.

What about the second trust with $11 million?

You have no remaining lifetime exemption.

The second trust will have an inclusion ratio of one.

There will be skip tax on 100% of something in the future.

Expensive?

Yep, but what are you going to do?

In practice, these are sometimes called Exempt and Nonexempt trusts, for the obvious reason.

Reflecting, you will see that a direct skip does not have an equivalent to the “inclusion ratio.” The direct skip is easier to work with.

A significant issue involved with allocating is missing the issue and not allocating at all.

Does it happen?

Yes, and a lot. In fact, it happens often enough that the Code has default allocations, so that one does not automatically wind up having trusts with inclusion ratios of one.

But the default may not be what you intended. Say you have $5 million in lifetime exemption remaining. You simultaneously create two trusts, each for $5 million. What is that default going to do? Will it allocate the $5 million across both trusts, meaning that both trusts have an inclusion ratio of 50%? That is probably not what you intended. It is much more likely that you intend to allocate to only one trust, giving it an inclusion ratio of zero.

There is another potential problem.

The default does not allocate until it sees a “GST trust.”

What is a GST trust?

It is a trust that can have a skip with respect to the transferor unless one or more of six exceptions apply.

OK, exceptions like what?

Exception #1 – “25/46” exception. The trust instrument provides that more than twenty-five percent (25%) of the trust principal must be distributed (or may be withdrawn) by one or more persons who are non-skip persons before that individual reaches age forty-six (46) (or by a date that will occur or under other circumstances that are likely to occur before that individual reaches age forty-six (46)) (IRC §2632(c)(3)(B)(i)).”

Here is another:

Exception #2 – “25/10” exception. The trust instrument provides that more than twenty-five percent (25%) of the trust principal must be distributed (or may be withdrawn) by one or more persons who are non-skip persons and who are living on the date of the death of another person identified in the instrument who is more than ten (10) years older than such individual (IRC §2632(c)(3)(B)(ii)).”

Folks, this is hard terrain to navigate. Get it wrong and the Code does not automatically allocate any exemption until … well, who knows when?

Fortunately, the Code does allow you to override the default and hard allocate the exemption. You must remember to do so, of course.

There is another potential problem, and this one is abstruse.

One must be the “transferor” to allocate the exemption.

So what, you say? It makes sense that my neighbor cannot allocate my exemption.

There are ways in trust planning to change the “transferor.”

You want an example?

You set up a dynasty trust for your child and grandchildren. You give your child a testamentary general power of appointment over trust assets.

A general power of appointment means that the child can redirect the assets to anyone he/she wishes.

Here is a question: who is the ultimate transferor of trust assets – you or your child?

It is your child, as he/she has last control.

You create and fund the trust. You file a gift tax return. You hard allocate the skip exemption. You are feeling pretty good about your estate planning.

But you have allocated skip exemption to a trust for which you are not the “transferor.” Your child is the transferor. The allocation fizzles.

Can you imagine being the attorney, CPA, or trustee decades later when your child dies and discovering this? That is a tough day at the office.

I will add one more comment about working in this area: you would be surprised how legal documents and tax returns disappear over the years. People move. Documents are misplaced or inadvertently thrown out. The attorney has long since retired. The law firm itself may no longer exist or has been acquired by another firm. There is a good chance that your present attorney or CPA has no idea how – or if – anything was allocated many years ago. Granted, that is not a concern for average folks who will never approach the $13.6 million threshold for the skip, but it could be a valid concern for someone who hires the attorney or CPA in the first place. Or if Congress dramatically lowers the exemption amount in their relentless chase for the last quarter or dollar rolling free in the economy.

With that, let’s conclude our talk about skipping.