A Call From Chuck

I was speaking with a client this week. He told me that he recently retired and his financial advisor recommended he discuss a matter with me.

Me:              So, what are we going to talk about?”

Chuck:         I worked for Costco for many years.”

Me:              OK.”

Chuck:         I bought their stock all along.”

Me:              Not sure where this is going. Are you diversifying?”

Chuck:         Have you heard of Net Unrealized Appreciation?”

Me:              Sure have, but how does that apply to you?”

That was not my finest moment. I did not immediately register that Chuck had – for many years – bought Costco stock inside of his 401(k).

Take a look at this stock chart: 

Costco stock was at $313 on February 7, 2020. Five years later it is at $1,043.

It has appreciated – a lot.

I missed the boat on that one.

The appreciation is unrealized because Chuck has not sold the stock.

The difference between the total value of the Costco stock in his 401(k) and his cost in the stock (that is, the amount he paid over the years buying Costco) is the net unrealized appreciation, abbreviated “NUA” and commonly pronounced (NEW-AHH).

And Chuck has a tax option that I was not expecting. His financial advisor did a good job of spotting it.

Let’s make up a few numbers as we talk about the opportunity here.

Say Chuck has 800 shares. At a price of $1,043, the stock is worth $834,400.

Say his average cost is 20 cents on the dollar: $834,400 times 20% = cost of $166,880.

Chuck also owns stocks other than Costco in his 401(k). We will say those stocks are worth $165,600, bring the total value of his 401(k) to an even $1 million.

Chuck retires. What is the likely thing he will do with that 401(k)?

He will rollover the 401(k) to an IRA with Fidelity, T Rowe, Vanguard, or someone like that.

He may wait or not, but eventually he will start taking distributions from the IRA. If he delays long enough the government will force him via required minimum distributions (RMDs).

How is the money taxed when distributed from the IRA?

It is taxed as ordinary income, meaning one can potentially run through all the ordinary tax rates.

It was not that long ago (1980) that the maximum tax rate was 70%. Granted, one would need a lot of income to climb through the rates and get to 70%. But people did. Can you imagine the government forcing you to take a distribution and then taking seventy cents on the dollar as its cut?

Hey, you say. What about those capital gains in the 401(k)?  Is there no tax pop there?

Think of a 401(k) as Las Vegas. What happens in Las Vegas stays in Las Vegas. What leaves Las Vegas is ordinary income.

And that gets us to net unrealized appreciation. Congress saw the possible unfairness of someone owning stock in a regular, ordinary taxable brokerage account rather than a tax-deferred retirement account. The ordinary taxable account can have long-term capital gains. The retirement account cannot.

Back to NEW-AHH.

How much is in that 401(k)?

A million dollars.

How much of that is Costco?

$834,400.

Let’s roll the Costco stock to a taxable brokerage account. Let’s roll the balance ($165,600) to an IRA.

This would normally be financial suicide, as stock going to a taxable account is considered a distribution. Distributions from an IRA are ordinary income. How much is ordinary income tax on $834,400? I can assure you it exceeds my ATM withdrawal limit.

Here is the NUA option:

You pay ordinary tax on your cost - not the value - in that Costco stock.

OK, that knocks it down to tax on $166,880.

It still a lot, but it is substantially less than the general rule.

Does that mean you never pay tax on the appreciation – the $667,520?

Please. Of course you will, eventually. But you now have two potentially huge tax planning options.

First, hold the stock for at least a year and a day and you will pay long-term capital gains (rather than ordinary income tax) rates on the gain.

QUIZ: Let’s say that the above numbers stayed static for a year and a day. You then sold all the stock. How much is your gain? It is $667,520 (that is, $834,400 minus $166,880). You get credit (called “basis” in this context) for the income you previously reported.

What is the second option?

You control when you sell the stock. If you want to sell a bit every year, you can delay paying taxes for years, maybe decades. Contrast this with MRDs, where the government forces you to distribute money from the account.

So why wouldn’t everybody go NUA?

Well, one reason is that (in our example) you pony up cash equal to the tax on the $166,880. I suppose you could sell some of the Costco stock to provide the cash, but that would create another gain triggering another round of tax.

A second reason is your specific tax situation. If you just leave it alone, distributions from a normal retirement account would be taxable as ordinary income. If you NUA, you are paying tax now for the possibility of paying reduced tax in the future. Take two people with differing incomes and taxes and whatnot and you might arrive at two different answers.

Here are high-profile points to remember about net unrealized appreciation:

(1)  There must exist a retirement account at work.

(2)  There must be company stock in that retirement account.

(3)  There is a qualified triggering event. The likely one is that you retired.

(4)  There must be a lump-sum distribution out of that retirement account. At the end of the day, the retirement account must be empty.

(5)  The stock part of the retirement account goes one way (to a taxable account), and the balance goes another way (probably to an IRA).

(6)  The stock must be distributed in kind. Selling the stock and rolling the cash will not work.

BTW taking advantage of NUA does not have to be all or nothing. We used $834,400 as the value of the Costco stock in the above example. You can NUA all of that – or just a portion. Let’s say that you want to NUA $400,000 of the $834,400. Can you do that? Of course you can.

Chuck has a tax decision that I will never have.

Why is that?

CPA firms do not have traded stock.

Overcontributing To Your 401(k)

 

One of the accountants had a question for me:

A:               I added up the W-2s, but the wages per the software does not agree to my number.

CTG:          Is your number lower?

A:               Yes.

Let’s talk about 401(k)s. More specifically, let’s talk about 401(k)s when one changes jobs during the year. It can be an issue if one is making decent bank.

You are under age 50. How much can you defer in a 401(k)?

For 2021 you can defer $19,500. The limit increased to $20,500 for 2022.

You change jobs during 2021. Say you contributed $14,000 at your first job. The second job doesn’t know how much you contributed at first job. You contribute $12,000 at your second job.

Is there a tax problem?

First, congrats. You are making good money or are a serious saver. It could be both, I suppose.

But, yes, there is a tax problem.

The universe of retirement plans is divided into two broad categories:

·      Defined benefit

·      Defined contribution

Defined benefit are also known as pension plans. Realistically, these plans are becoming extinct outside of a union setting, with the government counting as union.

Defined contribution plans are more commonly represented by 401(k)s, 403(b)s, SIMPLES and so forth. Their common feature is that some – maybe most – of the dollars involved are the employee’s own dollars.

Being tax creatures, you know that both categories have limits. The defined benefit will have a benefit limit (the math can be crazy). The defined contribution will have a contribution limit.

And that contribution limit is $19,500 in 2021 for someone under age 50.

COMMENT: If you google “defined contribution 2021” and come back with $58,000, you may wonder about the difference between the two numbers. The $58,000 includes the employer contribution. Our $19,500 is just the employee contribution. This difference is one of the reasons that solo 401(k)s work as well as they do: they max-out the employer contribution – assuming that the income is there to power the thing, of course.  

Let’s go back to our example. You deferred $26,000 for 2021.

Are you over the limit?

Yep.

If you add your two W-2s together, is the sum your correct taxable wages for 2021?

Nope.

Why not?

Because a 401(k) contribution lowers your (income) taxable wages. You went $6,500 over the limit. Your taxable wages are $6,500 lower than they should be.

 What do you do?

There are two general courses of action:

(1)  Contact one of the employers (probably the second one) explain the issue and request that the W-2 be amended by the deadline date for filing your return – that is, April 15. Rest assured, you have just drawn the wrath of someone in the accounting or payroll department, but you have only so many options. 

BTW the earnings on the excess contributions are also taxable to you. Say that you earned 1% on the excess. That $65 will be taxable to you, but it will be taxable the following year. 

In summary,

§  Your 2021 W-2 income goes up by $6,500

§  You will report the $65 earnings on the excess contribution in 2022.

    It is a mess, but the second option is worse.

(2)  You do not contact one of the employers, or you contact them too late for them to react by April 15.

Your 2021 W-2s show excessive 401(k) deferral.

Your tax preparer will probably catch this and increase your taxable W-2 totals by $6,500. This is what created the accountant’s question at the beginning of this post.

Oh well, you say. You are back to the same place as option one. No harm, no foul – right?

Not quite. 

First, your employer may not be too happy if the issue is later discovered. This is an operational plan issue, and there can be penalties for operational plan issues. 

Second, once you go past the time allowed for correction, the money is stuck in the plan until you are allowed take a distribution (or until the employer learns of the issue and corrects the plan on its own power). 

Say you never tell them. Let’s not burn this bridge, right? 

Problem. Take a look at this bad boy: 

                 Section 402(g)(6)  Coordination with section 72 .

For purposes of applying section 72 , any amount includible in gross income for any taxable year under this subsection but which is not distributed from the plan during such taxable year shall not be treated as investment in the contract.

What does this assemblage of mostly unintelligible words mean?    

It means that you will be taxed again when the 401(k) finally distributes the excess contribution to you. 

Yep, you will be taxed twice on the same income. 

That $6,500 got expensive. 

Upon reflection, there really is no option 2. You have to tell your employer and have them correct the W-2.      

Exceptions to Early Distribution Penalties

 

What caught my eye about the case was the reference to an “oral opinion.”

Something new, methought.

Better known as a “bench opinion.’

Nothing new, methinks.

What happened is that the Tax Court judge rendered his/her opinion orally at the close of the trial.

Consider that a tax case will almost certainly include Code section and case citations, and I find the feat impressive.

Let’s talk about the case, though, as there is a tax gotcha worth discussing.

Molly Wold is a licensed attorney. She was laid-off in 2017. Upon separation, she pulled approximately $86 grand from her 401(k) for the following reasons:

(1)  Pay back a 401(k) loan

(2)  Medical expenses

(3)  Student loans

(4)  Mortgage and other household expenses

You probably know that pulling money from a 401(k) is a taxable event (set aside a Roth 401(k), or we are going to drive ourselves nuts with the “except-fors”).

Alright, she will have income tax.

Here is the question: will she have an early distribution penalty?

This is the 10% penalty for taking money out from a retirement account, whether a company plan (401(k), 403(b), etc) or IRA and IRA-based plans (SIMPLE, SEP, etc). Following are some exceptions to the penalty:

·      Total and permanent disability

·      Death of the account owner

·      Payments over life expectancy; these are sometimes referred to as “Section 72(t)” payments.

·      Unreimbursed medical expenses (up to a point)

·      IRS levy

·      Reservist on active duty

Then it gets messy, as some exceptions apply only to company-based plans:

·      Leaving your job on reaching age 55 (age 50 if a public safety employee)

Is there a similar rule for an IRA?

·      Withdrawals after attaining age 59 ½.

Why age 55 for a 401(k) but 59 ½ for an IRA?

Who knows.

Molly was, by the way, younger than age 55.

There are exceptions that apply only to a company-based plan:

·      A qualified domestic relations order (that is, a divorce)

·      Dividends from an ESOP

There are exceptions that apply only to an IRA and IRA-based plans:

·      Higher education expenses

·      First-time homebuyer (with a maximum of $10,000)

Yes, Congress should align the rules for both company, IRA and IRA-based plans, as this is a disaster waiting to happen.

However, there is one category that all of them exclude.

Ms Wold might have gotten some pop out of the exception for medical expenses, but that exclusion is lame. The excluded amount is one’s medical expenses exceeding 7.5% of adjusted gross income (AGI). I suppose it might amount to something if you are hit by the proverbial bus.

The rest of the $86 grand would have been for general hardship.

Someone falls on hard times. They turn to their retirement account to help them out. They take a distribution. The plan issues a 1099-R at year-end. Said someone says to himself/herself: “surely, there is an exception.”

Nope.

There is no exception for general hardship.

10% penalty.

Let’s go next to the bayonet-the-dead substantial underpayment penalty. This penalty kicks-in when the additional tax is the greater of $5,000 or 10% of the tax that should have been shown on the return.

Folks, considering the years that penalty has been around, you would think Congress could cut us some slack and at least increase the $5 grand to $10 grand, or whatever the inflation-adjusted equivalent would be.

Ms Wold requested abatement of the penalty for reasonable cause.

Reasonable cause would be that this area of the Code is a mess.

You know who doesn’t get reasonable cause?

An attorney.

Here is the Court:

So I will hold her as a lawyer and as a highly intelligent person with a good education to what IRS instructions that year showed.”

Our case this time was Woll v Commissioner, TC Oral Order.

New Life Expectancy Tables For Your Retirement Account

On November 7, 2019 the IRS issued Proposed Regulations revising life expectancy tables used to calculate minimum required distributions from retirement plans, such as IRAs.

That strikes me as a good thing. The tables have not been revised since 2002.

There are three tables that one might use, depending upon one’s situation. Let’s go over them:

The Uniform Lifetime Table

This is the old reliable and the one most of us are likely to use.

 Joint Life and Last Survivor Expectancy Table

This is more specialized. This table is for a married couple where the age difference between the spouses is greater than 10 years.

The Single Life Expectancy Table

Do not be confused: this table has nothing to do with someone being single. This is the table for inherited retirement accounts.

Let’s take a look at a five-year period for the Uniform Lifetime Table:

Age	Old	New	Difference
71	26.5	28.2	1.7
72	25.6	27.3	1.7
73	24.7	26.4	1.7
74	23.8	25.5	1.7
75	22.9	24.6	1.7

If you had a million dollars in the account, the difference in your required minimum distribution at age 71 would be $2,275.

It is not overwhelming, but let’s remember that the difference is for every remaining year of one’s life.

As an aside, I recently came across an interesting statistic. Did you know that 4 out of 5 Americans receiving retirement distributions are taking more than the minimum amount? For those – the vast majority of recipients – this revision to the life expectancy tables will have no impact.

Let’s spend a moment talking about the third table - the Single Life Expectancy Table. You may know this topic as a “stretch” IRA.

A stretch IRA is not a unique or different kind of IRA. All it means is that the owner died, and the account has passed to a beneficiary. Since minimum distributions are based on life expectancy, this raises an interesting question: whose life expectancy?

COMMENT: There is a difference on whether a spouse or a non-spouse inherits. It also matters whether the decedent reached age 70 ½ or not. It is a thicket of rules and exceptions. For the following discussion, let us presume a non-spouse inherits and the decedent was over age 70 ½.

An easy way to solve this issue would be to continue the same life expectancy table as the original owner of the account. The problem here is that – if the beneficiary is young enough – one would run out of table.

So let’s reset the table. We will use the beneficiary’s life expectancy.

And there you have the Single Life Expectancy Table.

As well as the opportunity for a stretch. How? By using someone much younger than the deceased. Grandkids, for example.

Say that a 35-year old inherits an account. What is the difference between the old and new life expectancy tables?

                                Old             48.5

                                New            50.5

Hey, it’s better than nothing and – again – it repeats every year.

There is an odd thing about using this table, if you have ever worked with a stretch IRA. For a regular IRA – e.g., you taking distributions from your own IRA – you look at the table to get a factor for your age in the distribution year. You then divide that factor into the December 31 IRA balance for the year preceding the distribution year to arrive at the required minimum amount.

Point is: you look at the table every year.

The stretch does not do that.

You look at the table one time. Say you inherit at age 34.  Your required minimum distribution begins the following year (I am making an assumption here, but let’s roll with it), when you are age 35. The factor is 48.5. When you are age 36, you subtract one from the factor (48.5 – 1.0 = 47.5) and use that new number for purposes of the calculation. The following year you again subtract one (47.5 – 1.0 = 46.5), and so on.

Under the Proposed Regulation you are to refer to the (new) Single Life Expectancy Table for that first year, take the new factor and then subtract as many “ones” as necessary to get to the beneficiary’s current age. It is confusing, methinks.

There are public comment procedures for Proposed Regulations, so there is a possibility the IRS will change something before the Regulations go final. Final will be year 2021.

So for 2020 we will use the existing tables, and for 2021 we will be using the new tables.

The Abbott Laboratories 401(k)

Something caught my eye recently about student loans. A 401(k) is involved, so there is a tax angle.

Abbott Laboratories is using their “Freedom 2 Save” program to:

… enable full-time and part-time employees who qualify for the company's 401(k) – and who are also contributing 2 percent of their eligible pay toward student loans – to receive an amount equivalent to the company's traditional 5 percent "match" deposited into their 401(k) plans. Program recipients will receive the match without requiring any 401(k) contribution of their own.”

Abbott will put money into an employee’s 401(k), even if the employee is not himself/herself contributing.

As I understand it, the easiest way to substantiate that one’s student loan is 2% or more of one’s eligible pay is to allow Abbott to withhold and remit the monthly loan amount. For that modest disclosure of personal information, one receives a 5% employer “match” contribution.

I get it. It can be difficult to simultaneously service one’s student loan and save for retirement.

Let’s take this moment to discuss the three main ways to fund a 401(k) account.

(1)  What you contribute. Let’s say that you set aside 6% of your pay.

(2)  What your employer is committed to contributing. In this example, say that the company matches the first 4% and then ½ of the next 2%. This is called the “match,” and in this example it would be 5%.

(3)  A discretionary company contribution. Perhaps your employer had an excellent year and wants to throw a few extra dollars into the kitty. Do not be skeptical: I have seen it happen. Not with my own 401(k), mind you (I am a career CPA, and CPA firms are notorious), but by a client. 

Abbott is not the first, by the way. Prudential Retirement did something similar in 2016.

The reason we are talking about this is that the IRS recently blessed one of these plans in a Private Letter Ruling. A PLR is an IRS opinion requested by, and issued to, a specific taxpayer. One generally has to write a check (the amount varies depending upon the issue), but in return one receives some assurance from the IRS on how a transaction is going to work-out taxwise. Depending upon, a PLR is virtually required tax procedure. Consider certain corporate mergers or reorganizations. There may be billions of dollars and millions of shareholders involved. One gets a PLR – period – as the downside might be career-ending.

Tax and retirement pros were (and are) concerned how plans like Abbott’s will pass the “contingent benefits” prohibition. Under this rule, a company cannot make other employee benefits – say health insurance – contingent on an employee making elective deferrals into the company’s 401(k) plan.

The IRS decided that the prohibition did not apply as the employees were not contributing to the 401(k) plan. The employer was. The employees were just paying their student loans.

By the way, Abbott Laboratories has subsequently confirmed that it was they who requested and received the PLR.

Technically, a PLR is issued to a specific taxpayer and this one is good only for Abbott Laboratories. Not surprisingly there are already calls to codify this tax result. Once in the Code or Regulations, the result would be standardized and a conservative employer would not feel compelled to obtain its own PLR.

I doubt you and I will see this in our 401(k)s.  This strikes me as a “big company” thing, and a big company with a lot of younger employees to boot.

Great recruitment feature, though.

When Your Employer Bungles Your Retirement Plan Loan

I admit that I am not a fan of borrowing from an employer retirement plan, except perhaps as a next-to-last step before being evicted.

Things go wrong.

Lose your job, for example, and not only are you looking for work but you also have a tax bill on a loan you cannot pay back.

You do not even have to lose your job.

Ms. Frias participated in her company’s retirement plan. She was getting ready to go on maternity leave when she borrowed $40,000 from her 401(k). Her employer was to withhold from her paycheck (to be paid biweekly), and there was a make-up provision allowing her to correct any shortfall by the end of the following month.

COMMENT: Retirement plan proceeds are normally tax-free if repaid over a period of five years or less.

She went on leave on or around August 1^st.  She was drawing on her accumulated vacation and sick time.  Sounds pretty routine.

She returned to work October 12th.

In November, she learned that her employer had failed to withhold any monies for her 401(k) loan.

She immediately wrote a $1,000 check and increased her withholding to get caught-up.

Nonetheless, at the end of the year the plan administrator (Mutual of America Life) sent her a $40,000 Form 1099R on the loan.

They however sent it to her electronically. Having no reason to expect one, she did not realize that she had even received a 1099. Goes without saying it was not on her tax return.

You know the IRS matched this up and sent her a notice.

What do you think: does she have a tax issue?

No question her employer messed up.

And that she tried to correct it.

However, the law is strict:

Although a loan may satisfy the section 72(p) requirements, “a deemed distribution occurs at the first time that the requirements … of this section are not satisfied, in form or operation.”

Her first payment was due in August, the month following the loan. If she had a deemed distribution, it would have occurred then. A distribution – even a “deemed” one – would be taxable.

There remained hope, though:

The plan administrator may provide the plan participant with an opportunity to cure the failure, and a deemed distribution does not occur unless the participant fails to pay the delinquent payment within the cure period.”

This is a nice safety valve. If the employer gives you a “cure” period, you can still avoid having the fail and its associated tax.

What was her cure period?

The end of the following month: September.

When did she write a check?

November, when she realized that there was a problem.

Too late.

She had one last long shot: a “leave of absence” exception.

Which is Code section 72(p)(2)(C), and it provides for interruption in a loan repayment schedule if one is not drawing a paycheck or not drawing enough to meet the minimum loan payment.

Her argument? She was not receiving her “regular” paycheck. She instead was drawing on her vacation and sick time bank.

Problem: she nonetheless received a check, and the Court was unwilling to part-and-parcel its source. She was collecting enough to make the loan payments.

She was hosed.

She did nothing wrong, but her employer’s negligence cost her somewhere near $15 grand in unnecessary taxes.