Income And Cancellation of Indebtedness

 

I am reading a case about cancellation of indebtedness income. 

Let’s take a moment to discuss the concept of income in the tax Code. 

The 16^th amendment, passed in 1913 and authorizing a federal income tax, reads as follows: 

The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration.

Needless to say, the definition of “incomes, from whatever source” became immediately contentious. 

Ask a tax practitioner for a definition of income, and it is likely that he/she will respond with “an accession to wealth.” 

That phrase comes from a 1955 Supreme Court case (Commissioner v Glenshaw Glass) which included the following: 

Here, we have instances of undeniable accessions to wealth, clearly realized, and over which the taxpayers have complete dominion." 

I am seeing three conditions, of which “accession to wealth” is but one. 

Let’s circle back to indebtedness and income.

Can one have income by borrowing money? 

Unless there is something extraordinarily odd about the loan, I would say “no.” The reason is that any increase in wealth (by receipt of the loan proceeds) is immediately offset by the requirement to repay the loan. 

Let’s say you buy a house. You take out a mortgage. 

What if you are in financial distress and mail the keys back to the mortgage company? 

Granted, the house secures the debt, but surrendering the house does not automatically release the debt. It however will likely result in your receiving the following 1099:

Like any 1099, there is a presumption of income. In this instance, there has been an exchange in the ownership of the house. There is another way to say this: the tax Code sees a sale of the property. 

It seems odd that tax sees potential income here. It is unlikely to happen if the surrendered asset is one’s principal residence, as one would have access to the $250,000/$500,000 gain exclusion. It could happen if the surrendered asset is rental or investment property, though. 

What about the debt on the property? 

Tax considers that a separate transaction. 

When the debt is discharged, the IRS has yet another form: 

Yes, it gets confusing. The system works much better when the two steps happen concurrently – such as in a short sale. In that case, it is common to skip the 1099-A altogether and just issue the 1099-C. 

NOTE: There is a twist in the straw depending upon whether the debt is recourse or nonrecourse. Believe it or not, there are about a dozen states where you can buy your principal residence with nonrecourse debt. You will not be surprised to learn that California is one of them. The upside is that you can return the keys to the bank and no longer be responsible for the mortgage. The downside is this policy was a major contributor to the burst of the housing bubble in the late aughts.

It is common for the 1099-C to be issued three years after the 1099-A. Why? The Code requires the reporting of cancellation of indebtedness on or before an “identifiable event” happens. 

An identifiable event in turn is defined as: 

1.  bankruptcy
2.  expiration of statute of limitations for collection
3.  cancellation of debt that renders it unenforceable in a receivership, foreclosure, or similar proceeding
4.  creditor's election of foreclosure remedies that statutorily bars recovery
5.  cancelation of debt due to probate proceedings
6.  creditor's discharge pursuant to an agreement
7.  discharge of indebtedness pursuant to a decision by the creditor, or the application of a defined policy of the creditor, to discontinue collection activity and discharge debt
8.  in specific cases, the expiration of a non-payment testing period [presumption of 36 months of no payment to the creditor]    

The three years is number (8). 

The income type we are discussing with the 1099-C is cancellation of indebtedness income. As discussed, just borrowing money does not create income. Whereas your assets may go up (you have cash from the loan or bought something with the cash), that amount is offset by the loan itself. The scales are balanced, and there is no accession to income. 

However, cancel the debt. 

The scale is no longer balanced. 

Meaning you have potential income. 

But the Code allows for exceptions. Here is Section 108: 

                (a) Exclusion from gross income

(1) In general Gross income does not include any amount which (but for this subsection) would be includible in gross income by reason of the discharge (in whole or in part) of indebtedness of the taxpayer if—

(A) the discharge occurs in a title 11 case,

(B) the discharge occurs when the taxpayer is insolvent,

(C) the indebtedness discharged is qualified farm indebtedness,

(D) in the case of a taxpayer other than a C corporation, the indebtedness discharged is qualified real property business indebtedness, or

(E) the indebtedness discharged is qualified principal residence indebtedness which is discharged—

(i) before January 1, 2026, or

(ii) subject to an arrangement that is entered into and evidenced in writing before January 1, 2026. 

The common ones are (a)(1)(A) for bankruptcy and (a)(1)B) for insolvency. 

Bankruptcy is self-explanatory. 

Solvency is not self-explanatory. You can think of insolvency as being bankrupt but not filing for formal bankruptcy. You owe more than you own. Let’s call the difference between the two the “hole.” To the extent that that cancelled debt is less than the “hole,” there is no cancellation of indebtedness income. Once the cancelled debt equals the “hole,” the exclusion ends. At that point, your net worth is zero (-0-). Technically the next dollar is an “accession to wealth” and therefore income. 

In our case this week Ilana Jivago borrowed from Citibank. She defaulted and was eventually foreclosed on in 2009. Citibank sent her a 1099-C. Jivago argued that it was nontaxable because it was qualified principal residence indebtedness per (a)(1)(E) above. 

Qualified principal residence indebtedness is defined as:         

Indebtedness incurred in acquiring, constructing, or substantially improving any qualified residence of the taxpayer.

The Court looked at photographs of and admired the renovations she made in 2005 and 2006. The Court noted that Jivago did not use an interior designer, and she did much of the work herself.

The problem is that 2005 and 2006 were before she borrowed from Citibank. 

Easy win for the IRS.

Our case this time was Jivago v Commissioner, Docket No. 5411-21.

When Is Divorce A Tax-Deductible Theft?

 

I am reading a case involving tax consequences from a divorce.

More specifically, the (ex) wife trying to deduct $2.5 million as a theft loss.

That is a little different.

He and she got married in 1987. Husband (Bruno) lifted a successful career in the financial sector, and by 2005 was earning over $2 million annually.

There was an affair.

There was a divorce.

The Court ordered an equitable distribution of marital properties.

That did not seem to impress Bruno, who transferred no marital properties. The court held him in contempt, ordered him to pay interest and yada yada yada.

QUESTION: Can’t a court place someone in jail for contempt?

It appeared that the Court had enough of Bruno, and in 2010 the Court transferred real estate to the (ex) wife, with instructions to sell, keep the first $300 grand and transfer the balance to an escrow account. The property sold for $1.9 million. Th (ex) wife kept all the money, placing nothing in escrow.

Yep, the Court held her in contempt.

By now I am thinking that the contempt of this court is clearly meaningless.

In 2015 our esteemed Bruno filed for bankruptcy. He claimed he was down to his last $2,500.

Which raised the question of where all the money went.

In 2016 the (ex) wife filed suit against Bruno’s new wife and several companies that he, she or both owned.

Methinks we found where the monies went.

She filed a claim against the bankruptcy estate for $3.5 million.

Apparently, there was something to the (ex) wife’s claim, as the bankruptcy trustee filed suit against the new wife, against Bruno’s mother, the Bruno companies previously mentioned and some poor guy Bruno talked to while walking his dog around the neighborhood.

That case was settled in 2019.

Let’s be honest: there is really no likeable character in this story.

The (ex) wife amended her 2015 tax return to report a $2.5 million theft.

That – not surprisingly – created a net operating loss that went springing across tax years like kids at a pre-COVID McDonald’s Playland.

The IRS caught the amended return and said: No way. No theft. No loss. Get outta here.

And that is how we got to the Tax Court.

Establishing the existence of a deductible theft can be tricky in tax law. Yes, one always has the question of what was stolen, how much was it worth and all that. Tax law introduces an additional requirement:

·      One must establish the year in which the loss was sustained.

The blade is in Reg 1.165-1(d):

However, if in the year of discovery there exists a claim for reimbursement to which there is a reasonable prospect of recovery, no portion of the loss with respect to which reimbursement may be received is sustained  .. until the taxable year in which it can be ascertained with reasonable certainty whether or not such reimbursement will be received.”

It is not the “what” that will trip you up; it is the “when.”

There of course some Court guidance over the years, such as:

·      The evaluation should not be made “through the eyes of the ‘incorrigible’ optimist,” or

·      … the “mere possibility or the bare hope of a future development permitting recovery does not bar the deduction of a loss clearly sustained.”

Yep. That is like telling a baseball player to step to the plate against Jacob deGrom and “just swing the bat.”

Thanks for the advice there, pal.

And the Court decided against the (ex) wife.

No one believed Bruno when he filed bankruptcy in 2015 and claimed he was worth only $2,500. The trustee filed suit; the (ex) wife filed suit. Lawsuits were everywhere.

The Court stated that the (ex) wife may well have a theft loss. What she did not have was a theft loss in 2015.

Our case this time for the home gamers was Bruno v Commissioner, T.C. Memo 2020-156.

IRS Collection Statute Expiration Date (CSED)

 I consider it odd.

I have two files in my office waiting on the collection statute of limitations to expire.

It is not a situation I often see.

Audits, penalty abatements, payment plans, offers and innocent spouse requests are more common.

Let’s talk about the running of the collection statute of limitations.

COMMENT: I do not consider this to be valid tax planning, and I am quite reluctant to represent someone who starts out by intending to do the run. That said, sometimes unfortunate things happen. We will discuss the topic in the spirit of the latter.

Let’s set up the two statutes of limitations:

(1) The first is the statute on assessment. This is the familiar 3-year rule: the IRS has 3 years to audit and the taxpayer has 3 years to amend.

COMMENT: I do not want to include the word “generally” every time, as it will get old. Please consider the modifier “generally” as unspoken but intended.

(2)  The second is the statute on collections. This period is 10 years.

We might conversationally say that the period can therefore go 13 years. That would be technically incorrect, as there would be two periods running concurrently. Let’s consider the following example:

·      You filed your individual tax return on April 15, 2020. You owed $1,000 above and beyond your withholdings and estimates.

·      The IRS audited you on September 20, 2022. You owed another $4,000.

·      You have two periods going:

o  The $1,000 ends on April 15, 2030 (2020 + 10 years).

o  The $4,000 ends on September 20, 2032 (2022 + 10 years).

Alright, so we have 10 years. The expiration of this period is referred to as the “Collection Statute Expiration Date” or “CSED”.

When does it start?

Generally (sorry) when you file the return. Say you extend and file the return on August 15. Does the period start on August 15?

No.

The period starts when the IRS records the return.

Huh?

It is possible that it might be the same date. It is more possible that it will be a few days after you filed. A key point is that the IRS date trumps your date.

How would you find this out?

Request a transcript from the IRS. Look for the following code and date:

                  Code          Explanation

                    150           Tax return filed

Start your 10 years.

BTW if you file your return before April 15, the period starts on April 15, not the date you filed. This is a special rule.

Can the 10 years be interrupted or extended?

Oh yes. Welcome to tax procedure.

The fancy 50-cent word is “toll,” as in “tolling” the statute. The 10-year period is suspended while certain things are going on. What is going on is that you are probably interacting with the IRS.

OBSERVATION: So, if you file your return and never interact with the IRS – I said interact, not ignore – the statute will (generally – remember!) run its 10 years.

How can you toll the statute?

Here are some common ways:

(1)  Ask for an installment payment plan

Do this and the statute is tolled while the IRS is considering your request.

(2)  Get turned down for an installment payment plan

                  Add 30 days to (1) (plus Appeals, if you go there).

(3)  Blow (that is, prematurely end) an installment payment plan

Add another 30 days to (1) (plus Appeals, if you go there).

(4)  Submit an offer in compromise

The statute is tolled while the IRS is considering your request, plus 30 days.

(5)  Military service in a combat zone

The statute is tolled while in the combat zone, plus 180 days.

(6)  File for bankruptcy

The statute is tolled from the date the petition is filed until the date of discharge, plus 6 months.

(7)  Request innocent spouse status

The statute is tolled from the date the petition is filed until the expiration of the 90-day letter to petition the Tax Court. If one does petition the Court, then the toll continues until the final Court decision, plus 60 days.

(8)  Request a Collections Due Process hearing

The statute is tolled from the date the petition is filed until the hearing date.

(9)  Request assistance from the Taxpayer Advocate

The statute is tolled while the case is being worked by the Taxpayer Advocate’s office.

Unfortunately, I have been leaning on CDP hearings quite a bit in recent years, meaning that I am also extending my client’s CSED. I have one in my office as I write this, for example. I have lost hope that standard IRS procedure will resolve the matter, not to mention that IRS systems are operating sub-optimally during COVID. I am waiting for the procedural trigger (the “Final Notice. Notice of Intent to Levy and Notice of Your Rights to a Hearing”) allowing the appeal. I am not concerned about the CSED for this client, so the toll is insignificant.

There are advanced rules, of course. An example would be overlapping tolling periods. We are not going there in this post.

Let’s take an example of a toll.

You file your return on April 15, 2015. You request a payment plan on September 5, 2015. The IRS grants it on October 10, 2015. Somethings goes wobbly and the IRS terminates the plan. You request a Collection Due Process hearing on June 18, 2019. The hearing is resolved on November 25, 2019.

Let’s assume the IRS posting date is April 15, 2015.

Ten years is April 15, 2025.

It took 36 days to approve the payment plan.

The plan termination automatically adds 30 days.

The CDP took 161 days.

What do you have?

April 15, 2025 … plus 36 days is May 21, 2025.

Plus 30 days is June 20, 2025.

Plus 161 days is November 28, 2025.

BTW there are situations where one might extend the CSED separate and apart from the toll. Again, we are not going there in this post.

Advice from a practitioner: do not cut this razor sharp, especially if there are a lot of procedural transactions on the transcript. Some tax practitioners will routinely add 4 or 5 weeks to their calculation, for example. I add 30 days simply for requesting an installment payment plan, even though the toll is not required by the Internal Revenue Manual.  I have seen the IRS swoop-in when there are 6 months or so of CSED remaining, but not when there are 30 days.

Are You Insolvent Or Not?

There is a case called Hamilton v Commissioner. It was recently decided in the 10^th Circuit, and it caught my eye.

Since it went to a Circuit court, you may correctly assume that this case was on appeal.

Frankly, I do not see a win condition for the taxpayer here. It does, however, give us an opportunity to discuss the concept of a tax nominee.

The patriarch of our story – Mr Hamilton – borrowed over $150,000 to send his son to medical school.

Mr Hamilton injured his back in 2008 – and badly.

I presume that translated into loss of income and a difficult time servicing debt.

Mrs Hamilton finally got the student loan discharged in 2011.

A key point is that the student loan belonged to Mr Hamilton – not the son. When the loan was discharged, the tax effect is therefore analyzed at Mr Hamilton’s level, as he was the debtor.

Before the discharge, Mrs Hamilton transferred approximately $300 grand into a rarely used savings account owned by her son. He in turn gave her the username and password so she could access the account. Throughout 2011, for example, she withdrew close to $120,000 from the account.

COMMENT: There you have the issue of a nominee: whose account is it: Mrs Hamilton’s, the son’s, or both? Granted, it the son’s name is on the account, but is he acting as the face man – that is, a nominee – for someone else?

The issue in the case is whether the discharged debt of $150 grand was taxable to the Hamiltons in 2011.

In general, if your recourse debt is discharged, you have taxable income. There are several exceptions, of which one of the better known is bankruptcy. File for bankruptcy and the tax Code allows you to exclude the debt from taxable income.

But … it requires you to file bankruptcy.

There is a similar – but not quite the same – exception that has to do with insolvency. For tax purposes, one is insolvent if one’s debts exceeds one’s assets.

EXAMPLE: You have assets (house, car, savings, etc.) of $400,000. You owe $500,000. You are insolvent to the extent that your debts exceed your assets ($500,000 – 400,000 = $100,000).

Mind you, you are not filing for bankruptcy. I suppose it is possible that you could power through this stretch, cutting back personal expenditures to a minimum and applying everything else to debt. Still, you are technically insolvent.

The tax Code lets you exclude debt forgiveness from taxable income to the extent that you are insolvent.

EXAMPLE: Let’s continue with the above example. Say that $50,000 is forgiven. You are $100,000 insolvent. $50 grand is less than $100 grand, so $50 grand would be excluded under the insolvency exception.

NEXT EXAMPLE: What if $125 grand was forgiven? You could exclude $100 grand and no more. That last $25,000 would be taxable, as you are no longer insolvent.

The insolvency calculation puts a lot of pressure on what to include and what to exclude in the calculation. Do you include a 401(k) account, for example? Do you include someone else’s loan on which you cosigned?

In the Hamilton case, do you include that savings account?

Under state law, the son did own the account. Tax law however will rarely allow itself to be trapped by mere formality. This judicial doctrine is referred as “substance over form,” and it means what it says: tax law will generally look at the players and on-field performance and resist being distracted by the school band and T-shirt cannons.

The Court made short work of this case.

The taxpayers argued, for example, that the son could change the username and password at any time, so it would be a leap to call him an agent or nominee for his parents.

Yep, and a delivery spaceship for intergalactic deep-dish pizza could land on Spaghetti Junction in Atlanta during rush hour.

If you can log-in with impunity and move $120,000 grand, then you have effective control over the bank account. The mother’s name was not on the account, but it may as well have been because the son was his mother’s agent – that is, her nominee.

I have no problem with that. I would have done the same for my mother, without hesitation.

What the Hamiltons could not do, however, was leave-out that bank account when they were counting assets for purposes of the insolvency calculation. It was, after all, around $300 hundred – less than a Bezos but a lot more than a smidgeon.

Did it affect the insolvency calculation?

Of course it did. That is why the case went to Court.

The Hamiltons were not insolvent. They had income from the debt discharge.

They had to try, I guess, but I doubt whether they ever had a win condition.

Paying Tax On Borrowed Money

I am looking at a Tax Court case where the IRS was chasing almost two-thirds of a million dollars. It involves an attorney and something called “litigation support agreements.”

There is a term you do not hear every day.

The taxpayer is a class-action lawyer.

You see, in a class action, the law firm sues on behalf of a group – or class - of affected parties. Perhaps numerous people were affected by a negligent act, for example, but there is not enough there for any one person to pursue litigation individually. Combine them, however, and you have something.

Or the lawsuit can be total malarkey and the law firm is seeking a payday, with little to no regard to the “class” it allegedly represents.

Ultimately, a class action is a tool that can be used for good or ill, and its fate depends upon the intent and will of its wielder.

Let get’s back to our taxpayer.

It takes money to pursue these cases. One has to bring in experts. There can be depositions, travel, cross-examinations. This takes money, and we already mentioned that a reason for class action is that no one person has enough reason – including money – to litigate on his/her own power.

Did you know there are people out there who will play bank with these cases? That is what “litigation support agreements” are. Yep, somebody loans money to the law firm, and – if the case hits – they get a very nice payoff on their loan. If the case fails, however, they get nothing. High risk: high reward. It’s like going to Vegas.

The taxpayer received over $1.4 million of these loans over a couple of years.

Then IRS came in.

Why?

I see two reasons, but I flat-out believe that one reason was key.

The taxpayer left the $1.4 million off his tax return as taxable income. The taxpayer thought he had a good reason for doing so: the $1.4 million represented loan monies, and it is long-standing tax doctrine that one (generally) cannot have income by borrowing money. Why? Because one has to pay it back, that is why. You are not going to get rich by borrowing money.

There are variations, though. It is also tax doctrine that one can have income when a lender forgives one’s debt. That is why banks issue Forms 1099-C (Cancellation of Debt) when they write-off someone’s credit card. How is it income? Because one is ahead by not having to pay it back.

Our taxpayer had different loan deals and agreements going, but here is representative language for one litigation support agreement:

… shall be a litigation support payment to [XXX] made on a nonrecourse basis and is used to pay for all time and expenses incurred by [XXX} in pursuant [sic] of this litigation. Said payment shall be repaid to …. at the successful conclusion of this litigation with annual interest to be paid as simple interest at the rate of …. as of the date of concluding this litigation.”

Let’s see: there is reference to repayment and an interest rate.

Good: sounds like a loan.

So where is the problem?

Let’s look at the term “nonrecourse.” In general, nonrecourse means that – if the loan fails – the lender can pursue any collateral or security under the loan. What the lender cannot do, however, is go after the borrower personally. Say I borrow a million dollars nonrecourse on a California house that subsequently declines in value to $300 grand. I can just mail the keys back to the lender and walk away without the lender able to chase me down. I am trying to divine what the broader consequence to society could possibly be if numerous people did this, but of course that is silly and could never happen.

Still, nonrecourse loans happen all the time. They should not be fatal, as I am technically still obligated on the loan - at least until the time I mail back the keys.

Let’s look at the next phrase: “successful conclusion of this litigation.”

When are you on the hook for this loan?

I would argue that you are on the hook upon “successful conclusion of this litigation.”

When are you not on the hook?

I would say any time prior to then.

The loan becomes a loan – not at the time of lending – but in the future upon occurrence of a distinguishable event.

The IRS was arguing that the taxpayer received $1.4 million for which he was not liable. He might be liable at a later time - perhaps when the universe begins to cool or the Browns win a Super Bowl – but not when that cash hit his hand.

Granted, chances are good that whoever lent $1.4 would pursue tort action if the taxpayer skipped town and sequestered on an island for a few years, but that would be a different legal action. Whoever put up the money might sue for fraud, nonperformance or malfeasance, but not because the taxpayer was liable for the debt. 

Let’s go back: what keeps one from having income when he/she borrows money?

Right: the obligation to pay it back.

So who did not have an obligation to pay it back?

The taxpayer, that’s who.

The IRS won the case. Still, what bothered me is why the IRS would go after this guy so aggressively. After all, give this arrangement a few years and it will resolve itself. The law firm receives money; the law firm spends money. When it is all said and done, the law firm will burn through all the money, leaving no “net money” for the IRS to tax.

So what fired up the IRS?

The taxpayer filed for bankruptcy.

Before burning through the money.

Meaning there was “net money” left.

He was depriving the IRS of its cut.

There is the overwhelming reason I see.

Our case this time was Novoselsky v Commisioner.

Taxpayer Fail On Discharging Taxes Through Bankruptcy

I have an IRS notice sitting on my desk. I meant to call the IRS about it on Friday, but it got away from me. I will call on Monday. It disgruntles me, as I have already called and considered the matter resolved.

There you have why practitioners get upset with the IRS about hair-trigger or bogus notices: one has only so much time.

My partner brought in this client. They were chronic nonfilers, and we prepared the better part of a decade’s worth of returns for them. I lost humor with them when the husband insulted one of my accountants. Granted, it is unlikely that a younger accountant would know what I know, but the incident was uncalled for. The husband and I had a very different and blunt conversation.

They spoke with my partner about discharging the taxes through bankruptcy, which is one reason I was brought in.

Short answer: forgetaboutit, at least for a while.

There are four basic requirements to discharging taxes in bankruptcy. I have not often seen the fourth reason, but I was recently reading a case involving that elusive fourth.

Here are the four requirements:

(1)  The taxes were due at least three years ago. Obtain an extension and you must include the extension period in the three years.

(2)  Fail to file and the taxes are not dischargeable until at least two years after filing.

(3)  The IRS must have assessed the taxes at least 240 days before filing for bankruptcy.

(4)  The return must not be fraudulent, and the taxpayer(s) cannot willfully have attempted to avoid the tax.

Let’s go through an example.

(1)  Let’s say we are talking about your 2016 tax return. If you filed on April 15, 2017, the first rule gives you a minimum date of April 15, 2020.

(2)  Let’s say you filed that 2016 return on July 21, 2018. The second rule gives you a minimum date of July 21, 2020.

(3)  Let’s say the IRS posted (that is, assessed) the 2016 return shortly after filing – perhaps July 31, 2018. There is no problem with the 240-day rule.

(4)  Let’s also say there was no attempt to evade tax. It was irresponsible not to file, but there is nothing there other than irresponsibility.

Seems to me that the earliest you can file for discharge via bankruptcy would be July 22, 2020 – the latest of the above dates.

Let’s talk about a case involving the fourth requirement.

There is a doctor. Her husband was a CPA – he lost his license after a conviction for tax evasion.

She let her husband prepare the returns for years 2004 through 2014.

I would not have done that, but - to me – a CPA losing his license for tax evasion is a HUGE dealbreaker, husband or not.

The entered into a payment plan. They missed some payments.

Like night follows day.

They were living the high life. They had an expensive house (Newport), but they wanted a more expensive house (Dwight). They bough Dwight on a land contract, hoping to sell Newport.

They then carried two houses, as Newport did not sell.

Now they were tight on cash, and they fell behind with the IRS.

Mind you, that did not stop them from sending their kids to a private school, racking up $325,000 in the process. They also took trips to Mexico and Puerto Rico, as well as parking a Jaguar and a Lexus in the driveway.

Newport was foreclosed.

In 2016 we have the bankruptcy.

The IRS moved to exercise its lien on the Dwight property.

Husband came up with a brilliant scheme.  He sold Dwight for a swan song to a former client.  He would pay the IRS the few dollars that came his way from the “sale,” and he and his wife would rent the Dwight property back from the former client.

Puuhleeeese, said the IRS.

The Court agreed with the IRS. It spotted a willful attempt to evade or avoid, thereby nixing any discharge of taxes although the couple had filed for bankruptcy.

Why? They failed the fourth requirement.

The case for the home gamers is re Harold 2020 PTC 58 (Bankr. E.D. Michigan 2020)