Business League: A Different Type Of Tax-Exempt

You may have heard about business leagues.

One very much in the news recently is the National Football League, which has been considering giving up its tax-exempt status.

In the tax world, exempt entities obtain their exempt status under Section 501(c). There is then a number, and that number is the “type” of exempt under discussion. For example, a classic charity like the March of Dimes would be a 501(c)(3). When we think of tax-exempts, we likely are thinking of (c)(3)’s, for which contributions are deductible to the donor and nontaxable to the recipient charity.

The (c)(3) is about as good as it gets.

A business league is a (c)(6). So is a trade association.

Right off the bat, payments to a (c)(6) are not deductible as contributions. They are, however, deductible as a business expense- which makes sense as they are business leagues. You and I probably could not deduct them, but then again you and I are not businesses.

There are some benefits. For example, a (c)(6) has virtually no limit on its lobbying authority, other than having to pro-rate the member dues between that portion which represents lobbying (and not deductible by anybody) and the balance (deductible as a business expense).

There are requirements to a (c)(6):

(1)  There must be members.

a.     The members must share a common business interest.

                                                              i.     Members can be individuals or businesses.

                                                            ii.     If membership is available to all, this requirement has not been met. This makes sense when you consider that the intent of the (c)(6) is to promote shared interests.

(2)  Activities must be directed to improving business conditions in a line of business.

a.     Think of it as semi-civic: to advance the general welfare by promoting a line of business rather than just the individual companies.

b.    This pretty much means that membership must include competitors.

c.     Sometimes it can be sketchy to judge. For example, the IRS denied exemption to an organization whose principal activity was publishing and distributing a directory of member names, addresses and phone numbers to businesses likely to require their services. The IRS felt this went too close to advertising and too far from the improvement of general business conditions.

(3)  The primary activities must be geared to group and not individual interests.

a.     The American Automobile Association, for example, had its application denied as it was primarily engaged in rendering services to members and not improving a line of business.

(4)  The main purpose cannot be to run a for-profit business.

a.     This requirement is standard in the not-for-profit world. You can run a coffee shop, but you cannot be Starbucks.

b.    For example, a Board of Realtors normally segregates its MLS activities in another – and separate – company. The Board itself would be a (c)(6), but the MLS is safely tucked away in a for-profit entity – less it blow-up the (c)(6).

(5)  Must be not-for-profit.

a.     Meaning no dividends to shareholders or distributions rights if the entity ever liquidates.

b.    BTW – and to clarify – a not-for-profit can show a profit. Hypothetically it could show a profit every year, although it is debatable whether it could rock the profit level of Apple or Facebook and keep its exemption. The idea here is that profits – if any – do not “belong” to shareholders or investors.

(6)  There must be no private inurement or private benefit to key players or a restricted group of individuals.

a.     Again, this requirement is standard in the not-for-profit world.

b.    This issue has been levelled against the NFL. Roger Goodell (the NFL Commissioner) has been paid over $44 million a year for his services. It does not require a PhD in linguistics to ask at what point this compensation level becomes an “inurement” or “benefit” disallowed to a (c)(6).

There is litigation around (4) and (6). The courts have allowed some business activity and some benefit to the members, as long as it doesn’t get out of hand. The courts refer to this as “incidental benefit.”

Which can lead to interesting follow-up issues. Take a case where the organization runs a business (within acceptable limits) and then uses the profit to subsidize something for its members. Can this amount to private inurement? The members are – after all - receiving something at a lower cost than nonmembers.

Let’s take a look at a recent application. I think you know enough now to anticipate how the IRS decided.

(1)  The (c)(6) members are convenience stores and franchisees of “X.”

(2)  Revenues will be exclusively from member fees.

(3)  One-quarter of member fees will be remitted annually to the national franchisee (that is, the franchise above “X”)

(4)  Member franchisees will elect the Board.

(5)  The (c)(6) will educate and assist with franchise policies.

(6)  The (c)(6) will facilitate resolution between members and executives of “X.”

How did it go?

The IRS bounced the application.

Why?

We could have stopped at (1). There is no “line of business” happening here. Members are limited to franchisees of “X.” Granted, “X” participates in an industry but “X” does not comprise an industry. 

The organization tried to clean-up its application after being rejected but it was too little too late.

The organization was not promoting the industry as a whole. It rather was promoting the interest of the franchisee-owners. 

Nothing wrong with that. You just cannot get a tax exemption for it.

Can A Coffee Shop Be Tax-Exempt?

I have been spending quite a bit of time over the last few days working on or reviewing not-for-profit returns.

It may surprise you, but – with a few exceptions – not-for-profit organizations are required to file paperwork annually with the IRS.

There is a reason for this: the tax Code recognizes some organizations as “per se” not-for-profit – churches are the classic example. Churches do not need to be told by the IRS that they are tax-exempt; they simply are. A large part of this is church:state separation, although church programs that begin to look uncannily similar to for-profit businesses are supposed to file an income tax return (known as Form 990-T) and pay tax.

Then we have the next tier: the education, charitable, scientific, etc. entities that also comprise not-for-profits. These are not “per se” and have to apply with the IRS to have their exempt status recognized. The application is done via either Form 1023 or Form 1024, depending upon the type of exempt status desired.

We talking about the March of Dimes, Doctors Without Borders or your local high school boosters club.

One thing this tier has in common is that they have to explain to the IRS what their exempt purpose is.

And there are tax subtleties at play. For example, can your exempt purpose be less than 50% of what you do? What if it is more than 50% but you have a significant (but less than 50%) non-exempt purpose? What if you start out at a more-than-50% exempt purpose but – over time – your non-exempt purpose goes over 50%?

This becomes its own field of specialization. I have met practitioners over the years whose only practice is tax exempts.

I am looking at the IRS response to a recent exempt application. I will give you a few facts and flavor, and let’s see if you can anticipate the IRS decision on the matter.

(1)  A minister had an idea for a coffee shop. The shop would be separate from the church (hence the exempt application). Being separate however would allow (and maybe encourage) other churches and religious groups to participate.

(2)  The coffee shop would allow believers and non-believers to interact. There would be religious activities, but the activities would not be organized by the shop. They would instead be organized by the patrons. By the way, the shop could also be used for non-religious activities. One could leave a donation for the use of the space.

(3)  There are no similar businesses where the shop is located, hence it is not taking commercial opportunity from a profit-seeking business.

(4)  The shop affords a gathering space that is open late, as well as provide safe space for residents to gather.

(5)  The shop takes part in a job-skills training program to help underserved youth by placing them in an actual job for a six-week internship.

(6)  The shop participates in a project for the children of incarcerated parents. Patrons can share gifts with the kids, such as for their birthdays and Christmas.

(7)  The shop does not want to turn away anyone for inability to pay. There is a program where a customer can pay for a certain amount of coffee in advance. When a not-able-to-pay patron enters, he/she is served from those advance payments.

(8)  The shop sells coffee, teas, smoothies and so forth. There are also baked goods, as well as salads and desserts.

(9)  The shop roasts its own coffee, which is sourced directly from coffee farmers. This allows the farmers to earn more than other conventional means of distribution. The coffee is also available for sale, and there are plans to sell the coffee online in the future

(10)        The shop uses some volunteers, but its largest expense is (understandably) wages and related payroll costs.

(11)        The shop intends to give away its profits - that is, when it finally becomes profitable.

What do you think? Would you give this shop exempt status?

Here goes the IRS:

(1)  To be exempt, an organization must be both organized and operated exclusively for an exempt purpose. The test has two parts: the paperwork and what is actually going on.

(2)  The IRS has defined the word “exclusively” to mean “primarily.”

(3)  Hot on the heels of that definition, the IRS has also said that non-exempt activities must not be “more than an insubstantial part” of activities.

OBSERVATION: You can see the evolution of law here. A non-tax specialist would anticipate that an activity is exempt if the exempt activity is 51% or more of all activities. The flip side is that a non-exempt activity should be as much as 49%.

The IRS however states that a non-exempt activity cannot be “more than an insubstantial part” of all activities.

Does “insubstantial” mean as much as 49%?

If not, then the IRS is changing definitions all over the place.

(4)  The IRS has previously decided that the operation of a grocery store to provide on-the-job training to hardcore unemployed represented two purposes, not one. Each purpose has to be reviewed to determine whether it is exempt or not.

(a)  And now it gets tricky. If the store is staffed principally by a target group (or volunteers) AND the store is no larger than reasonably necessary for achieving the exempt purpose, the IRS has said that the store is exempt.

(b)  Conversely, if the store is not staffed by the target group (or volunteers) or larger than necessary, the IRS has said that the store is non-exempt.

(5)  While the coffee shop intends to donate its profits, its main activity is the operation of a coffee shop in a commercial manner.

(6)  And that activity is “more than insubstantial.”

The IRS rejected the application. The coffee shop will have to pay taxes.

Doesn’t it matter that they are giving away all profits? Isn’t there a vow-of-poverty-thing that one can point to?

And there is a key point about tax law in the world of exempts. Giving away money will not transform a for-profit activity into a not-for-profit activity. Granted, you may get a charitable deduction, but you will be taxable. The IRS has been steadfast on this point for many years. The activity itself has to be exempt, not just the monies derived from said activity. To phrase it differently, gigantic donations will not make Microsoft a tax-exempt entity.

The IRS decided the shop was too similar to a Starbucks or Caribou.    

And giving away any profits wasn’t enough to change the answer.

Does the shop do great work?

Yes.

Is it tax exempt?

Nope.

Do You Actually Need To Rent Before Deducting Rental Expenses?

Let’s say that you own a piece of property. You are trying to claim a rental loss from that property on your tax return. What would you say is the most important requisite in order to claim that loss?

Let’s take a look at the Meinhardt case.

Mr. Meinhardt worked full-time as an architect. His wife operated a day care center out of their home.

In 1976 they purchased 140 acres of farmland in rural Minnesota, consisting of tillable and pasture land and an eighty-year old farmhouse in need of substantial renovation. In subsequent years they sometimes farmed the land, but mostly they rented the land to neighbors for cash rent. They were successful in renting the farmland. They were not so successful in renting the farmhouse.

Thirty years go by.

On their tax returns for 2005, 2006 and 2007 they reported rent from the farmland, as well as substantial expenses for repairs to the old farmhouse. The IRS looked at the return and disallowed the repairs.

They wound up in Tax Court.

The Meinhardts had a simple argument: hey, we own a farm. We rent the farm. For the years under audit our expenses exceeded our income, and we therefore incurred farm losses.

The IRS had a different take. They saw the land being rented on a regular and repetitive basis. There wasn’t much for the IRS to challenge there.

The farmhouse was a different matter. The farmhouse never reported rental income.

That is one lousy rental.

Let’s take a breath. This is not necessarily fatal. The Meinhardts rented a farm. It doesn’t means that all parts and parcels of said farm were equally profitable. As long as it was profitable overall, right?

That, by the way, is the tax concept of aggregation when discussing passive activities, such as rentals.

The Meinhardts explained that they tried to rent the farmhouse, but nobody wanted it. They placed ads in newspapers, put up notices in local stores and spread the word that the house was for rent. The best they could get were renters who would barter for their rent, trading repairs in order to live rent-free. You cannot rent something that no one wants to rent. That doesn’t mean it wasn’t legitimately for rent, though.

The Meinhardts had a reasonable argument.

The IRS, on the other hand, felt that the farmhouse should be separated from the farmland. Hey, they tried to rent the house separate from the land. They rented the land but never rented the house. Does that sound like one rental or two rentals to you?

And there you have the tax concept of disaggregation.

Rent is rent, whether it be land or building. How was the IRS going to pull this off?

The Meinhardts helped them by never reporting rental income from the farmhouse. There was barter, but the documentation was sketchy.

Since the house had not been rented, the IRS wanted to know who had used the house over the years. The Meinhardts used it themselves, but only sporadically and usually coinciding with maintaining the property.

Other tenants included:

·        Wife’s brother (lived their seasonally)

·        Their daughter and son-in-law

·        Their son and his family

It turns out that the Meinhardts – or their family – had used the farmhouse for almost all the years.

Are you kidding me?

Did I mention that the 2005 through 2007 years were not representative, as the Meinhardts were racking up a lot of repairs to that old house? It sure would be nice to slide those expenses over to Uncle Sam.

The Tax Court decided that the farmhouse was either the Meinhardts second residence or it was a property not held for rental – you take your pick. The tax consequence is the same.

The Meinhardts, unhappy with this result, appealed to the Eight Circuit. They lost there too.

What are we to learn from this? That the Meinhardts should never have tried to rent the farmhouse separate from the farmland? That they should have automatically thrown in the farmhouse for a dollar when renting the land? That they never should have allowed the family to stay there? That at least they should have charged the family rent? (I personally think that last one is obvious).

I think we are thinking about this too hard.

Methinks that what the court could not stomach was the Meinhardts selling their house in the suburbs and moving into the farmhouse in 2010.

After fixing it up in 2005, 2006 and 2007.

And deducting it on their tax return.

Courts will “back into” a tax analysis to get the desired result. Happens all the time.

The Meinhardts failed to observe a fundamental tenet of tax strategy: never arm the other side.

Pfizer Wants To Decrease Its Taxes By Moving To Britain

I am reading the following headline at Bloomberg Businessweek: “Pfizer’s $99 Billion Bid for AstraZeneca Is a Tax Shelter.”

No, it is not. This is a tax shelter the same way I am Floyd Mayweather Jr.’s next opponent.

It is sign of a problem, though.

Pfizer is based in New York City. AstraZeneca is based in London. Pfizer has proposed the deal, but AstraZeneca has not yet accepted. The deal may fall yet fall through. There are any number of reasons why a drug company would buy another drug company, but this one would move one of the largest U.S. multinationals to London. The term for this is “inversion.”

Mind you: the Pfizer executives are not moving. They will remain in New York, and Pfizer research facilities will remain in Connecticut. Pfizer will however go from being a U.S.-based multinational to a U.K.-based one. How? There will be a new parent company, and that parent will be based in London. Voila!

Inversions are more complicated than they used to be. In 2004 Congress passed IRC Section 7874, which denies tax benefits to an inversion unless certain thresholds are met. For example,

·       If the former shareholders of the former U.S. parent own 80% or more of the foreign corporation after the inversion, then the inverted company will continue to be considered – and taxed – as a U.S. company.

You can quickly assume that new – and non-U.S. shareholders – will own more than 20% of the new Pfizer parent.

What if you own Pfizer stock? In addition to owning less than 80% of the new parent, code Section 367 is going to tax you when Pfizer inverts. This is considered an “outbound” transaction, and there is a “toll” tax on the outbound. What does that tell you? It tells you that there has to be cash in the deal, otherwise you are voting against it. There has to be at least enough cash for the U.S. shareholders to pay the toll.

Let’s say the deal happens. Then what?

I cannot speak about the drug pipeline and clinical trials and so forth. I can speak about the tax part of the deal, however.

As a U.S. multinational, Pfizer has to pay taxes on its worldwide income. This means that that it pays U.S. taxes on profits earned in Kansas City, as well as in Bonn, Cairo, Mumbai and Sydney. To the extent that a competitor in Germany, Egypt, India or Australia has lower tax rates, Pfizer is at an immediate disadvantage. In the short term, Pfizer would be less profitable than its overseas competitor. In the long term, Pfizer would move overseas. Congress realized this and allowed tax breaks on these overseas profits. Pfizer doesn’t have to pay taxes until it brings the profits back to the United States, for example. Clever tax planners learned quickly how to bend, pull and stretch that requirement, so Congress passed additional rules saying that certain types of income (referred to as “Subpart F” income) would be immediately taxed, irrespective of whether the income was ever returned to the United States. The planners responded to that, and the IRS to them, and we now have an almost incomprehensible area of tax Code.

Take a moment, though, and consider what Congress did. If you made your bones overseas, you could delay paying taxes until you brought the money back to the U.S. Then you would have to pay tax – but at a higher rate than your competitor in Germany, Egypt, India or Australia. You delayed the pain, but you did not avert it. In the end, your competitor is still better off than you, as he/she got to keep more of his/her profit.

What do you do? Well, one thing you cannot do is ever return the profit to the United States. You will expand your overseas location, establish new markets, perhaps buy another – and foreign – company. What you will not do is ship the money home.

How much money has Pfizer stashed overseas? I have read different amounts, but $70 billion seems to be a common estimate.

When Pfizer inverts, it may be able to repatriate that money to the U.S. without paying the inbound toll. That is a lot of money to free up. I could use it.

The U.S. also has one of the highest – in truth, maybe the highest – corporate tax rate in the world. The U.K. taxes corporate profits at 20%, compared to the U.S. 35%. The U.K. also taxes profits on U.K. patents at 10%, an even lower rate. This is a pharmaceutical company, folks. They have more patents than Reese’s has pieces. And the U.K. taxes only the profits generated in the U.K., which is a 180 degree turn from Washington’s insistence that it can tax profits of an American company anywhere on the planet.

Now, Pfizer does not get to avoid U.S. taxes altogether. It will still pay U.S. tax on profits from its U.S. sales and activities. The difference is that it will not pay U.S. taxes on sales and activities occurring outside the United States.

Since 2012 approximately 15 large U.S. companies have moved or announced plans to move offshore. Granted, there are numerous reasons why, but a significant – and common – reason has to be the benighted policy of U.S. multinational taxation. What has the White House proposed to stem the tide? Increase the ownership threshold from 20% to 50% before the company will be deemed based outside the U.S.

Brilliant.  To think that Washington at one time pulled off the Manhattan Project, Hoover Dam and landing a man on the moon. How far the apple has fallen.

The issue of corporate inversion has been swept up as part of the larger discussion on tax reform. That discussion is all but dead, unfortunately, although perhaps it may resurrect after the Congressional elections. The Camp tax proposal wants to move the U.S. to a territorial tax system rather than the existing worldwide system, which is an acknowledgement of the problem and a very good first step. It will not stop Pfizer, but we may able to stop the next company to follow.

The IRS Should Apologize To This Taxpayer

In income tax land if …

•  You own a corporation, and

•  The corporation has property, and

•  The corporation gives you the property, and

•  You do not pay anything for it, …

… then the IRS will consider you as receiving distribution from the corporation. The classic distribution is a dividend, taxable to you and not deductible by the corporation. 

Perhaps the corporation distributes property and you pay some – but not all – of what the property is worth. A classic example is a corporation distributing a car to the owner’s child for a nominal amount. There is a distribution taxable as a dividend, and the dividend amount would be the value of the car over any amount paid. It would not be the full value of the car in this case.

The tax code views a C corporation (we are not discussing S corporations in this blog) as an entity distinct from its shareholders. That is how Congress justifies taxing the corporation on its income and then taxing the shareholders again when they receive dividends sourced to that income. Since there are two entities, there cannot be double taxation.  

But there is, of course, and it takes sleight of hand to maintain the illusion. Many if not most tax advisors – including me – have steered most of our closely-held business clients away from C corporations and to passthrough entities: perhaps S corporations, partnerships or limited liability companies. Sometimes the weight of the double taxation is unacceptable. 

The Tax Court decided the Welle case just last month. Sure enough, it involved a C corporation and a dividend. More specifically, it involved what the IRS saw as a new species of dividend. 

Let’s walk this through.

There is a construction company (TWC) in North Dakota. It is wholly-owned by Terry Welle (Welle). TWC primarily does multifamily construction, and its historical profit has been around 6 or 7 percent.

Welle decides he is going to build a lakefront property in Minnesota.

NOTE:  Excuse me here, but how about going south with that lakefront property? Is Minnesota that much warmer than North Dakota?

Back to our story. Welle has a company that builds things. He used TWC’s accounting system to track his costs, and he also used its workers to frame the Minnesota house. The company did a calculation of the costs, including overhead, and Welle reimbursed the company to the penny. 

The IRS comes in and finds fault. The IRS wants to know where the company’s profit is. Welle reimbursed the company at cost, including overhead, meaning that they made no profit from him. The IRS says that there should be and must be a profit. They calculate that profit to be around $48,000. Since he did not reimburse the company its erstwhile profit, the IRS assessed him with a $48,000 dividend. It wants $10,620 in income tax.

Oh, the IRS also wants an accuracy-related penalty of over $2,100.

Wow! The IRS is assessing a penalty on a tax theory it has never trotted out before? That is brazen.

This case goes to Court. The IRS argues that a corporate distribution must be measured at fair market value. Fair market value is the amount that would fully reimburse a company for its direct and indirect costs, as well as render a profit.  One cannot disagree with that summary of microeconomics 101.

The Court tells the IRS to back up. It wants the IRS to point to the distribution event before its gets to any issue of measuring and valuing. The Court reasons that a distribution requires assets to be “diverted to or for the benefit of a shareholder.” It must be a vehicle to “distribute available earnings and profits without the expectation of repayment.”

Show us the distribution, says the Court.

The IRS offers and the Court reviews a number of cases, but it cannot see how corporate assets were expended. Welle received services, but then again he paid for them. At most, he used the company as a conduit in maintaining records and paying subcontractors. The company was no better or worse for transacting with him. The event was a nullity.

In frustration, the Court writes:

Respondent does not explain how a corporation’s decision not to make a profit on services provided to a shareholder who fully reimburses the corporation for the cost of services (including overhead) constitutes a distribution of property that reduced the corporation’s earnings and profits under Section 316(a), nor does the respondent cite any cases supporting such a position.”

The Court decided for Welle and against the IRS.

My thoughts? This is one of the lamest tax theories I have come across, and I have near 30 years in the profession. What was the IRS up to? Are there that many North Dakota contractors building lakefront homes that the IRS decided to go where no serious tax practitioner had gone before? 

Let us segue for a moment. 

Do you remember Nina Olsen? She is the Taxpayer Advocate, and we have spoken of her before. The Advocate is supposed to sit outside the IRS and function as a watchdog. It is great idea, but I must admit the IRS for the last half-decade or so has seemed less than interested in the Advocate. Nonetheless, she is promoting an idea she calls the IRS “apology payment.”  The idea is to pay a taxpayer something when the behavior of the IRS causes excessive delay or expense or an undue burden resulting in significant hardship to the taxpayer.

This idea is being refloated in response to the 501(c)(4) scandal. Ms Olson argues that apology payment would: 

Serve as a symbolic gesture that the government recognizes its mistake and the taxpayer’s burden. These payments might enhance the public perception of the IRS and the tax system as just and fair.”

Great idea, although a $1,000 flat sum may be insufficient in some cases.

I would like to see Welle receive his apology payment for the IRS wasting his time.