Renting Real Estate And Self-Employment Tax

 

I was looking at a tax return recently. There was an issue there that I did not immediately recognize.

Let’s go over it.

The client is a new venue for cocktail parties, formal dinners, corporate meetings, bridal showers, wedding rehearsals and receptions, and other such occasions.

The client will configure the space as you wish, but you will have to use a preselected list of caterers should you want food. There is a bar, but you will have to provide your own bartender. You can decorate, but there are strict rules on affixing decorations to walls, fixtures, and such. Nonroutine decorations must be approved in advance. You will have to bring your own sound system should you want music, as no system exists. The client will clean the space at the end of the event, but you must first remove all personal items from the property.

Somewhat specialized and not a business I would pursue, but I gave it no further thought.

The question came up: is this ordinary business income or rental income?

Another way to phrase the question is whether the income would or would not be subject to self-employment tax.

Let’s say you have a duplex. One would be hard pressed to think of a reasonable scenario where you would be paying self-employment tax, as rental income from real estate is generally excepted from self-employment income.

Let’s change the facts. You own a Hyatt Hotel. Yes, it is real estate. Yes, there is rental income. This income, however, will be subject to self-employment tax.

What is the difference? Well, the scale of the activity is one, obviously. Another is the provision of additional services. You may bring in a repairman if there were a problem at the duplex, but you are not going into the unit to wash dishes, vacuum carpets, change bed linens or provide fresh towels. There is a limit. On the other hand, who knows what concierge services at a high-end hotel might be able to provide or arrange.

We are on a spectrum, it appears. It would help to have some clarification on which services are innocuous and which are taunting the bull.

IRS Chief Counsel Advice 202151005 addressed the spectrum in the context of residential rental property.

First a warning. A CCA provides insight into IRS thinking on a topic, but that thinking is not considered precedent, nor does it constitute substantial authority in case of litigation. That is fine for us, as we have no intention of litigating anything or having a tax doctrine named after us.

Here is scenario one from the CCA:

·       You are not a real estate dealer.

·       You rent beachfront property via online marketplaces (think Airbnb).

·       You provide kitchen items, Wi-Fi, recreational equipment, prepaid ride-share vouchers to the business district and daily maid service.

Here is scenario two:

·       You are not a real estate dealer.

·       You rent out a bedroom and bathroom in your home via online marketplaces.

·       A renter has access to common areas only to enter and exit.

·       You clean the bedroom and bathroom after each renter’s stay.

I am not overwhelmed by either scenario. Scenario one offers a little more than scenario two, but neither is a stay at the Hotel Jerome.

Here is the CCA walkthrough:

·       Tax law considers rental income collected by a non-dealer to be non-self- employment income.

·       However, the law says nothing about providing services.

·       Allowable services include:

o   Those clearly required to maintain the property in condition for occupancy, and

o   Are a sufficiently insubstantial portion of the rent.

·       Nonallowable services include:

o   Those not clearly required to maintain the property in condition for occupancy, and

o   Are so substantial as to comprise a material portion of the rent.

The CCA considered scenario two to be fine.

COMMENT: I would think so. The services are minimal unless you consider ingress and egress to be substantial services.

The CCA considered scenario one not to be fine.

Why not?

·       The services are for the convenience of the occupants.

·       The services are beyond those necessary to maintain the space for occupancy.

·       The services are sufficient to constitute a material portion of the rent.       

I get the big picture: the closer you get to hotel accommodations the more likely you are to be subject to self-employment tax. I am instead having trouble with the smaller picture – the details a tax practitioner is looking for – and which signal one’s location on the spectrum.

·       Is the IRS saying that services beyond the mere availability of a bed and bathroom are the path to the dark side?

·       IRS Regulations refer to services customarily provided.

o   How is one to test customarily: with reference to nearby full-service hotels or only with other nearby online rentals?

o   In truth, did the IRS look at any nearby services in scenario one?

·       What does material portion mean?

o   Would the provision of services at a lower rent situs (say Athens, Georgia) result in a different answer from the provision of comparable services at a higher rent situs (say Aspen, Colorado)?

o   What about a different time of year? Can one provide more services during a peak rental period (say the NCAA Tournament) and not run afoul of the material portion requirement??

One wonders how much this CCA has reinforced online rental policies such as running-the-dishwasher and take-out-the-trash-when-you-leave. There is no question that I would advise an Airbnb client not to provide daily services, whatever they may be.

I also suspect why our client set up their venue the way they did.

An S Corporation Nightmare

Over my career the preferred entities for small and entrepreneurial businesses have been either an S corporation or a limited liability company (LLC). The C corporation has become a rarity in this space. A principal reason is the double taxation of a C corporation. The C pays its own taxes, but there is a second tax when those profits are returned to its shareholders. A common example is dividends. The corporation has already paid taxes on its profits, but when it shares its profits via dividends (with some exception if the shareholder is another corporation) there is another round of taxation for its shareholders. This might make sense if the corporation is a Fortune 500 with broad ownership and itself near immortal, but it makes less sense with a corporation founded, funded, and  grown by the efforts of a select few individuals – or perhaps just one person.

The advantage to an S corporation or LLC is one (usually - this is tax, after all) level of tax. The shareholder/owner can withdraw accumulated profits without being taxed again.

Today let’s talk about the S corporation.

Not every corporation can be an S. There are requirements, such as:

·       It cannot be a foreign corporation.

·       Only certain types of shareholders are allowed.

·       Even then, there can be no more than 100 shareholders.

·       There can be only one class of stock.

Practitioners used to be spooked about that last one.

Here is an example:

The S corporation has two 50% shareholders. One shareholder has a life event coming up and receives a distribution to help with expenses. The other shareholder is not in that situation and does not take a distribution.

Question: does this create a second class of stock?

It is not an academic question. A stock is a bundle of rights, one of which is the right to a distribution. If we own the same number of shares, do we each own the same class of stock if you receive $500 while I receive $10? If not, have we blown the S corporation election?

These situations happen repetitively in practice: maybe it is insurance premiums or a car or a personal tax. The issue was heightened when the states moved almost in concert to something called “passthrough taxes.” The states were frustrated in their tax collection efforts, so they mandated passthroughs (such as an S) to withhold state taxes on profits attributable to their state. It is common to exempt state residents from withholding, so the tax is withheld and remitted solely for nonresidents. This means that one shareholder might have passthrough withholding (because he/she is a nonresident) while another has no withholding (because he/she is a resident).

Yeah, unequal distributions by an S corporation were about to explode.

Let’s look at the Maggard case.

James Maggard was a 50% owner of a Silicon Valley company (Schricker). Schricker elected S corporation status in 2002 and maintained it up to the years in question.

Maggard bought out his 50% partner (making him 100%) and then sold 60% to two other individuals (leaving him at 40%). Maggard wanted to work primarily on the engineering side, and the other two owners would assume the executive and administrative functions.

The goodwill dissipated almost immediately.

One of the new owners started inflating his expense accounts. The two joined forces to take disproportionate distributions. Apparently emboldened and picking up momentum, the two also stopped filing S corporation tax returns with the IRS.

Maggard realized that something was up when he stopped receiving Schedules K-1 to prepare his personal taxes.

He hired a CPA. The CPA found stuff.

The two did not like this, and they froze out Maggard. They cut him off from the company’s books, left him out of meetings, and made his life miserable. To highlight their magnanimity, though, they increased their own salaries, expanded their vacation time, and authorized retroactive pay to themselves for being such swell people.

You know this went to state court.

The court noted that Maggard received no profit distributions for years, although the other two were treating the company as an ATM. The Court ordered the two to pay restitution to Maggard. The two refused. They instead offered to buy Maggard’s interest in Schricker for $1.26 million. Maggard accepted. He wanted out.

The two then filed S corporation returns for the 2011 – 2017 tax years.

They of course did not send Maggard Schedules K-1 so he could prepare his personal return.

Why would they?

Maggard’s attorney contacted the two. They verbally gave the attorney – piecemeal and over time – a single number for each year.

Which numbers had nothing to do with the return and its Schedules K-1 filed with the IRS.

The IRS took no time flagging Maggard’s personal returns.

Off to Tax Court Maggard and the IRS went.

Maggard’s argument was straightforward: Schricker had long ago ceased operating as an S corporation. The two had bent the concept of proportionate anything past the breaking point. You can forget the one class of stock matter; they had treated him as owning no class of  stock, a pariah in the company he himself had founded years before.

Let’s introduce the law of unintended consequences:

Reg 1.1361-1(l)(2):

Although a corporation is not treated as having more than one class of stock so long as the governing provisions provide for identical distribution and liquidation rights, any distributions (including actual, constructive, or deemed distributions) that differ in timing or amount are to be given appropriate tax effect in accordance with the facts and circumstances.

Here is the Tax Court:

… the regulation tells the IRS to focus on shareholder rights under a corporation’s governing documents, not what the shareholders actually do.”

That makes sense if we were talking about insurance premiums or a car, but here … really?

We recognize that thus can create a serious problem for a taxpayer who winds up on the hook for taxes owed on an S corporation’s income without actually receiving his just share of distributions.”

You think?

This especially problematic when the taxpayer relies on the S corporation distributions to pay these taxes.”

Most do, in my experience.

Worse yet is when a shareholder fails to receive information from the corporation to accurately report his income.”

The Court decided that Maggard was a shareholder in an S corporation and thereby taxable on his share of company profits.

Back to the Court:

The unauthorized distributions in this case were hidden from Maggard, but they were certainly not memorialized by … formal amendments to Schricker’s governing documents. Without that formal memorialization there was no formal change to Schricker’s having only class of stock.”

I get it, but I don’t get it. This reasoning seems soap, smoke, and sophistry to me. Is the Court saying that – if you don’t write it down – you can get away with anything?      

Our case this time was Haggard and Szu-Yi Chang v Commissioner, T.C. Memo 2024-77.

 

Section 1244 Stock: An Exception To Capital Loss

I was looking at a case involving Section 1244 stock.

I remember studying Section 1244 in school. On first impression one could have expected it a common quiver in tax practice. It has not been.

What sets up the issue is the limitation on the use of capital losses. An easy example of a capital asset is stock. Buy and sell stock and you have capital gains and losses (exempting those people who are dealers in stocks and securities). You then net capital gains against capital losses.

·      If the result is net capital gain, you pay tax.

·      If the result is net capital loss, the Code allows you to deduct up to $3,000 of net loss against your other types of income.

QUESTION: What if the net loss is sizeable – say $60 grand?

ANSWER: The Code will allow you to offset that loss dollar-for-dollar against any future capital gains.

QUESTION: What if the experience left a mark? You have no intention of buying and selling stocks ever again.

ANSWER: Then we are back to the $3,000 per year.

Mind you, that $3,000 entered the Code back in 1978. A 1978 dollar is comparable to $4.82 in 2024 dollars. Just to keep pace, the capital loss limit should have been cumulatively raised to $14,460 by now. It has not, of course, and is a classroom example of structural anti-taxpayer Code bias. 

Section 1244 is there to relieve some of the pressure. It is specialized, however, and geared toward small businesses.

What it does is allow one to deduct (up to) $50 grand ($100 grand for joint returns) as an ordinary loss rather than a capital loss.

There is a downside: to get there likely means the business failed. Still, it is something. Better $50 grand at one time than $3 grand over umpteen years.

What does it take to qualify?

(1)  First, there must be stock. Being a partner in a partnership will not get you there. This means that you organized as a corporation. Mind you, it can be either a C or an S corporation, but it must be a corporation.

(2)  The corporation must be organized in the United States.

(3)  The total amount of capital contributions to the corporation (stock, additional capital, whatever) must not exceed $1 million. If you are the unfortunate who puts the number above $1 million, then some of your stock will qualify and some will not.

(4)  The capital contribution must be in cash or other property (excluding stocks and securities). This would exclude stock issued as compensation, for example.

(5)  You must be the original owner of the stock. There are minimal exceptions (such as inheriting the stock because someone died).

(6)  You must be an individual. Corporations, trusts, estates, trustees in bankruptcy and so on do not qualify.

(7)  There used to be a prohibition on preferred stock, but that went out in 1985. I suppose there could still be instances involving 1984-or-earlier preferred stock, but it would be a dwindling crowd.

(8)  The company must meet a gross receipts test the year the stock is issued.

a.    For the preceding five years (or life of the company, if less), more than 50% of aggregate gross receipts must be from active business operations.

b.    Another way to say this is that passive income (think interest, dividends, rents, royalties, sales or exchanges of stocks and securities) had better be less than 50% of aggregate gross receipts. This Code section is not for mutual funds.

An interesting feature is that no formal election is required. Corporate records do not need to reference Section 1244.  Board minutes do not need to approve Section 1244.  Nothing needs to go with the tax return. The corporation must however retain records to prove the stock’s qualification under Section 1244.

And therein can be the rub.

Let’s look at the Ushio case.

In 2009 David Ushio acquired $50,000 of common stock in PCHG.

PCHG in turn had invested in LifeGrid Solutions LLC (LGS), which in turn was seeking to acquire rights in certain alternative energy technology.

PCHG never had revenues. It ceased business in 2012 and was administratively dissolved by South Carolina in 2013.

The IRS selected the Ushio’s joint individual return for 2012 and 2013. The audit had nothing to do with Section 1244, but the IRS saw the PCHG transaction and allowed a $3,000 capital loss in 2012.

Mind you, the Ushios had not claimed a deduction for PCHG stock on either their 2012 or 2013 return.

Mr. Ushio said “wait a minute …”

Some quick tax research and Ushio came back with a counter: he wanted a $50,000 ordinary loss deduction rather than the puny $3,000 capital loss. He insisted PCHG qualified under Section 1244.

The IRS had an easy response: prove it.

Ushio was at a disadvantage. He had invested in PCHG, but he did not have inside records, assuming those records even existed.

He presented a document listing “Cash Input” and “Deferred Pay,” noting that the deferred amount was never paid. Sure enough, the amount paid-in was less than $1 million.

The IRS looked at the document and noted there was no date. They wanted some provenance for the document - who prepared it? what records were used? could it be corroborated?

No, no and no.

In addition, PCHG never reported any gross receipts. It is hard to prove more-than-50% of something when that something is stuck at zero. Ushio pushed back: PCHG was to be an operating company via its investment in LGS.

The IRS could do this all day: prove it.

Ushio could not.

Meaning there was no Section 1244 stock.

Our case this time was Ushio v Commissioner, T.C. Summary Opinion 2021-27.