Vanguard's Whistleblower Tax Case

Can the IRS go after you for not making enough profit?

There is a whistleblower case against Vanguard, the mutual fund giant. Even though there is a tax angle, I had previously sidestepped the matter. Surely it must involve some mind-numbing arcana, and –anyway- why enable some ex-employee with a grudge? 

And then I saw a well-known University of Michigan tax professor supporting the tax issues in the whistleblower case.

Now I had to look into the matter.

My first reaction is that this case represents tax law gone wild. It happens. Sometimes tax law is like the person looking down at his/her cell phone and running into you in the hall. They are too self-absorbed to look up and get a clue.

What sets this up is the management company: Vanguard Group, Inc. (VGI). Take a look at other mutual fund companies and you will see that the management company is separately and independently owned from the mutual funds themselves.  The management company provides investment, financial and other services, and in turn it receives fees from the mutual funds.  

The management company receives fees irrespective of whether the funds are doing well or poorly. In addition, the ownership of the management company is likely different from the ownership of the funds. You can invest in the management company for T. Rowe Price (TROW), for example, even if you do not own any T. Rowe Price funds.

Vanguard however has a unique structure. Its management company – VGI – is owned by the funds themselves. Why? It goes back to Jack Bogle and the founding of Vanguard: he believed there was an inherent conflict of interest when a mutual fund is advised by a manager not motivated by the same financial interests as fund shareholders.  Since the management company and the funds are essentially one-and-the-same, there is little motivation for the management company to maximize its fees. This in turn has allowed Vanguard funds to provide some of the lowest internal costs in the industry

My first thought is that every mutual fund family should be run this way.

VGI and all the funds are C corporations under the tax Code. The funds themselves are more specialized and are “registered investment companies” under Subchapter M. Because the funds own VGI, the “transfer pricing” rules of IRC Section 482 apply.

COMMENT: The intent of Section 482 is to limit the ability of related companies to manipulate the prices they charge each other. Generally speaking, this Code section has not been an issue for practitioners like me, as we primarily serve entrepreneurs and their closely-held companies. This market tends to be heavily domestic and unlikely to include software development, patent or other activity which can easily be moved overseas and trigger transfer pricing concerns. 

Practitioners are however starting to see states pursue transfer pricing issues. Take Iowa, with its 12% corporate tax rate as an example. Let’s presume a multistate client with significant Iowa operations. Be assured that I would be looking to move profitability from Iowa to a lower taxed state. From Iowa’s perspective, this would be a transfer pricing issue. From my perspective it is common sense.

Section 482 wants to be sure that related entities are charging arm’s-length prices to each other. There are selected exceptions for less-than-arm’s-length prices, such as for providing routine, ministerial and administrative services. I suppose one could argue that the maintenance and preparation of investor statements might fit under this exception, but it is doubtful that the provision of investment advisory services would.  Those services involve highly skilled money managers, and are arguably far from routine and ministerial.

So VGI must arguably show a profit, at least for its advisory services. How much profit?

Now starts the nerds running into you in the hall while looking down at their cell phones.

We have to look at what other fund families are doing: Janus, Fidelity, Eaton Vance and so on. We know that Vanguard is unique, so we can anticipate that their management fees are going to be higher, potentially much higher. An analysis of Morningstar data indicates as much as 0.5 percent higher. It doesn’t sound like much, until you consider that Vanguard has approximately $3 trillion under management. Multiply any non-zero number by $3 trillion and you are talking real money.

It is an interesting argument, although it also appears that the IRS was not considering Vanguard’s fact pattern when it issued Regulations. Vanguard has been doing this for 40 years and the IRS has not concerned itself, so one could presume that there is a détente of sorts. Perhaps the IRS realized how absurd it would be to force the management company to charge more to millions of Vanguard investors.

That might attract the attention of Congress, for example, which already is not the biggest fan of the IRS as currently administrated.

Not to mention that since the IRS issued the Regulations, the IRS can change the Regulations.

And all that presumes that we are correctly interpreting an arcane area of tax law.

The whistleblower is a previous tax attorney with Vanguard, and he argues that Vanguard has been underpaying its income taxes by not charging its fund investors enough.

Think about that for a moment. Who is the winner in this Alice-in-Wonderland scenario?

The whistleblower says that he brought his concerns to the attention of his superiors (presumably tax attorneys themselves), arguing that the tax structure was illegal. They disagreed with him. He persisted until he was fired.

He did however attract the attention of the SEC, IRS and state of New York.

I had previously dismissed the whistleblower argument as a fevered interpretation of the transfer pricing rules and the tantrum of an ex-employee bent on retribution.  I must now reevaluate after tax law Professor Reuven S. Avi-Yonah has argued in favor of this case.

I am however reminded of my own experience. There is a trust tax provision that entered the Code in 1986. In the aughts I had a client with that tax issue. The IRS had not issued Regulations, 20 years later. The IRS had informally disclosed its internal position, however, and it was (of course) contrary to what my client wanted. I in turn disagreed with the IRS and believed they would lose if the position were litigated. I advised the client that taking the position was a concurrent decision to litigate and should be addressed as such.

I became extremely unpopular with the client. Even my partner was stressed to defend me. I was basing professional tax advice on chewing gum and candy wrappers, as there was nothing else to go on.

And eventually someone litigated the issue. The case was decided in 2014, twenty eight years after the law was passed. The taxpayer won.

Who is to say that Vanguard’s situation isn’t similar?

What does this tax guy think?

I preface by saying that I respect Professor Avi-Yonah, but I am having a very difficult time accepting the whistleblower argument. Vanguard investors own the Vanguard funds, and the funds in turn own the management company. I may not teach law at the University of Michigan, but I can extrapolate that Vanguard investors own the management company – albeit indirectly – and should be able to charge themselves whatever they want, subject to customary business-purpose principles. Since tax avoidance is not a principal purpose, Section 482 should not be sticking its nose under the tent.

Do you wonder why the IRS would even care? Any income not reported by the management company would be reported by fund investors. The Treasury gets its pound of flesh - except to the extent that the funds belong to retirement plans. Retirement plans do not pay taxes. On the other hand, retirement plan beneficiaries pay taxes when the plan finally distributes.  Treasury is not out any money; it just has to wait. Oh well.

It speaks volumes that someone can parse through the tax Code and arrive at a different conclusion. If fault exists, it lies with the tax Code, not with Vanguard.

Then why bring a whistleblower case? The IRS will pay a whistleblower up to 30% of any recovery, and there are analyses that the Vanguard management company could be on the hook for approximately $30 billion in taxes. Color me cynical, but I suspect that is the real reason.

On Warren Buffett, Berkshire Hathaway and PFICs

We have spoken before about passive foreign investment companies, or PFICs (pronounced pea-fick). There was a time when I saw these on a regular basis, and I remember wondering why the IRS made the rules so complicated.

I am thinking about PFICs because yesterday I read a release for IRS Notice 2014-28. The IRS is amending Regulations concerning the tax consequences of U.S. persons owning a passive foreign investment company through an account or organization which is tax-exempt. Think a hospital, pension plan or IRA, for example. 

Granted, this is not as interesting as Game of Thrones or Sons of Anarchy.

Could you walk unknowingly into a PFIC? It is not likely for the average person, but it is not as difficult as you might think.

PFICs came into the tax Code in 1986. They were intended to address what Congress saw as a loophole. I agree that there was a loophole, but whether the tax fly required the sledgehammer response it received is debatable.

There were a couple of ways to get to the loophole. One way would be to form a foreign corporation and have the corporation invest in stocks and bonds. This means you are forming a foreign mutual fund. There are a couple of issues with this, the key one being that it would require a large number of investors in order to avoid the rules for a controlled foreign corporation. To the extent that 10%-or-more U.S. shareholders owned more than 50% of the foreign corporation, for example, one would have a controlled foreign corporation (CFC) and would be back into the orbit of U.S. taxation.

The second way is to invest in an existing foreign mutual fund. Say that you invested in a German fund sponsored by Deutsche Bank, for example.

And the average person would say: so what? You invested in mutual fund.

Here s what the IRS did not like: the mutual fund could skirt the taxman by not paying dividends or distributions.  The value of the fund would increase, as it would accumulate its earnings.  When you sold that foreign mutual fund, you would have capital gains and you would pay U.S. tax.

Well, the IRS was unhappy with that, as you did not pay tax on dividends every year and, when you did pay, you paid capital gains rather than ordinary income tax. How dare you?

Why the sarcasm? Because you can get the same tax result from owning Berkshire Hathaway. Warren Buffet does not pay a dividend, and never has. You hold onto your shares for a few years and pay capital gains tax when you sell. The IRS never receives its tax on annual dividends, and you pay capital gains rather than ordinary tax on the sale.

Why the difference between the Berkshire Hathaway and Deutsche Bank? Exactly my point. Why is there a difference?

So we have PFIC taxation. Its sole purpose is to deny the deferral of tax to Americans investing in foreign mutual funds.

There are three ways to tax a PFIC.

The default scheme is found in Code Section 1291. You are allowed to defer taxation on a PFIC until the PFIC makes an “excess” distribution. An excess distribution is defined as one of two events:

(1)   The PFIC distributes an amount in excess of 125% of the average distribution for its preceding three years; or

(2)   You sell the PFIC stock.

Let’s say that we use the default taxation on the PFIC. What does your preparer (say me) have to do next?

(1)   I have to calculate your additional tax per year had the distribution been equally paid over the period you owned it (this part is relatively easy: it is the highest tax rate for that year); and

(2)   I have to calculate interest on the above annual tax amounts.

You can imagine my thrill in anticipation of this magical, career-fulfilling tax opportunity. There are severe biases in this calculation, such as presuming that any income or gain was earned pro rata over your holding period. I have seen calculations where - using 15 to 20 year holding periods - the tax and interest charge can approach 100%. This is not taxation. This is theft.

The second option is to annually calculate a "mark to market" on the PFIC. This works if there is a published trading or exchange price. You subtract the beginning-of-year value from the end-of-year value and pay tax on it. I have never seen a tax professional use this option, and frankly it strikes me as tax madness. With extremely limited exceptions, the tax Code does not consider asset appreciation to be an adequate trigger to impose tax. There would be no 401(k) industry, for example, if the IRS taxed 401(k)s like they tax PFICs.

The third option is what almost everyone does, assuming they recognize they have a PFIC and make the necessary election to be taxed as a “qualified election fund,” or QEF for short.

   OBSERVATION: Tax practitioners like their acronyms, as you can see.

There are two very important factors to a QEF:

           

(1)   You have to elect.

a.     No election, no QEF.

(2)   The foreign fund has to agree to provide you numbers, made up special just for its American investors. The fund has to tell you what your interest and dividends and capital gains would have been had it actually distributed income rather than accumulate.

You can fast forward why: because you are going to pay tax on income you did not receive.

What happens in the future when you sell the fund? Remember, you have been paying tax while the fund was accumulating. Don’t you get credit for all those taxes when you finally sell?

Yes, you do, and I have to track whichever of three calculations we decide on in a permanent file. For every fund you own.

BTW there had better be a specific form attached to your tax return: Form 8621. If you were required to disclose a foreign financial account (which a PFIC would be) and did not do so, either on Form 8621 or on another form intended for that purpose, the IRS might be able to "toll" the statute of limitations. Tolling means "suspend" in tax talk. This means the IRS could assess taxes, penalties and interest many years after the tax year should normally have closed. 

This applies only to rich people, right? Not so much, folks. This tax pollution has a way of dissolving down to affect very ordinary Americans.

How? Here are a couple of common ways:

(1)   You live abroad.

You live abroad. You invest abroad.

I intend to retire abroad, so some day this may affect me. Me and all the other tax CPA billionaires high-stepping it out of Cincinnati. Yep, we are a gang of tax-avoiding desperados, all right.

(2)   You work/worked in Canada.

And you have a RSSP. The RRSP is invested in Canadian mutual funds. How likely is this to happen? How about “extremely likely.”

There you have two ordinary as rain ways that someone can walk into a PFIC.

Keep in mind that the IRS is convinced that anyone with a nickel overseas is hiding money. We have already gone through the FBAR and OVDI fiascos, and tax literature is thick with stories of ordinary people who were harassed if not near-bankrupted by obscure and never-before-enforced tax penalties. The IRS is unabashed and wonders why you – the average person – cannot possibly keep up with its increasingly frenetic schedule of publishing tax rules, required disclosures, Star Trek parodies, bonuses to deadbeat employees and Fifth Amendment-pleading crooks.

Beginning in 2014, FATCA legislation requires all “foreign financial institutions” to report to the IRS all assets held by U.S. citizens and permanent residents. The U.S. citizen and permanent resident in turn will disclose all this information on new forms the IRS has created for this purpose – assuming one can find a qualified U.S. tax practitioner in Thailand, Argentina or wherever else an American may work or retire. Shouldn’t be a problem for that overseas practitioner to spot your PFIC – and all the related tax baggage that it draws in its wake - right?

What happens if one doesn’t know to file the PFIC form, or files the form incorrectly? I think we have already seen the velvet fist of the IRS with FBARs and OVDI. Why is this going to be any different?

Foreign Mutual Funds

Let’s talk about PFICs.

It is pronounced “Pea Fick,” and it is shorthand for a passive foreign investment company. We are continuing our “foreign” theme of late.

A PFIC is a foreign mutual fund. Think about your funds at Fidelity or Vanguard and relocate them to Bonn or London. That is all you have done, but with that act you have entered a twilight world of odd tax reporting.

Why? Treasury does not like foreign mutual funds. Why? That question has several possible answers, but I believe that a large part is because Treasury cannot control the taxation. A mutual fund in the United States is a “regulated investment company.” One of the requirements is that it has to pass along its taxable income to its investors in order to preserve its tax standing. Shift that fund to Bonn, and the German fund manager may not have the same level of concern in maintaining that “regulated investment company” status. The German fund manager may do something unconscionable, such as not declare dividends or distribute income to investors. That would allow the German fund to delay tax consequence to its U.S investors, possibly for many years. Why, the U.S. investor may eventually report the income as capital gain rather than ordinary dividend income. This is clearly an unacceptable scenario.

It didn’t use to be this way. The law for PFICs changed in 1986.

You are going to be specially taxed. You however can choose one of three methods of taxation:

(1)    The Excess Distribution Method

This is the default method and is found in Section 1291 of the Internal Revenue Code.

At first glance it sounds good. You pay no tax until you either sell or receive an “excess distribution.” When you do, the IRS presumes that the income was earned ratably over the years you owned the fund. You have to pay tax at the highest marginal tax rate. It does not matter what your actual tax rate was. What if the fund lost money for 8 years, had one great year that made up for all losses and then you sold at a profit. ? Doesn’t matter. The IRS presumes that your profit was earned pro rata over 9 years. Now you are late on your taxes (remember, you did not include the profit in your prior year returns because there WAS NO PROFIT). You now have to pay tax using the highest-marginal tax rates. For 9 years. And then there is interest on the late taxes.

Oh, you may not be allowed to claim the loss if you sell the PFIC at a loss.

 You really do not want to use this method.

(2)    The Mark to Market Method

This option was added to the Code in 1997.

You mark your PFIC to market every year-end. In other words, you pay taxes on the difference between the share price on January 1^st and December 31^st. Every year.

You forfeit capital gains and losses. Whatever income or loss you report is ordinary. Sorry.

The big requirement here is that the PFIC has to have published fund prices. If the prices are not published, you simply cannot use the mark to market method.

(3)    The Qualified Electing Fund

This is the method I have normally seen. The problem is that the fund has to provide certain information annually. As that information has meaning only to a U.S. taxpayer, the fund may decide that it is not worth the time and cost and refuse to provide it. In practice, I have seen these funds go through investment houses such as Goldman Sachs. Goldman can pool enough U.S. investors to make it worthwhile to the foreign fund manager, so the fund agrees going in that it will provide this additional information annually.

A QEF is basically like a partnership. It passes-though its income to the U.S. investor – whether distributed or not – and the U.S. investor pays taxes on it. Ordinary income is taxed at ordinary rates, and capital gains at capital gains rates. What changes is that Treasury does not wait for a distribution.

A QEF should be elected in the first year you own the QEF. If so, you avoid the “excess distribution” regime altogether. If you make the election in a later year, then there is a procedure to “purge” the earlier PFIC treatment.

The QEF election is made fund by fund.

Yes, there is a special form to use with PFICs. It is Form 8621 “Information Return by a Shareholder of a Passive Foreign Investment Company or Qualified Electing Fund.” It can be an intimidating three pages of tax-speak.

I saw PFICs a few years back, as we had several well-heeled clients. What I generally saw was a K-1, perhaps from a hedge fund. That fund in turn invested, and some of its investments were PFICs. The fund K-1 would arrive with its booklet of information, explanation and disclosures. The PFICs inside would further swell the page count. I remember these K-1s going on for 30 or 40 pages. These K-1s are not for young tax accountants.

As I said, Treasury really does not like foreign mutual funds.