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Showing posts with label day. Show all posts
Showing posts with label day. Show all posts

Sunday, October 22, 2023

Sonny Corleone’s IRA


I remember him as Sonny Corleone in The Godfather. He is James Caan, and he passed away in July 2022.

I am reading a Tax Court case involving his (more correctly: his estate’s) IRA.

There is a hedge fund involved.

For the most part, we are comfortable with “traditional” investments: money markets, CDs, stocks, bonds, mutual funds holding stocks and bonds and the mutual fund’s updated sibling: an ETF holding stocks and bonds.

Well, there are also nontraditional investments: gold, real estate, cryptocurrency, private equity, hedge funds. I get it: one is seeking additional diversification, low correlation to existing investments, enhanced protection against inflation and so forth.

For the most part, I consider nontraditional investments as more appropriate for wealthier individuals. Most people I know have not accumulated sufficient wealth to need nontraditional assets.

There are also tax traps with nontraditional assets in an IRA. We’ve talked before about gold. This time let’s talk about hedge funds.

James Caan had his cousin (Paul Caan) manage two IRAs at Credit Suisse. Paul wanted to take his career in a different direction, and he transferred management of the IRAs to Michael Margiotta. Margiotta left Credit Suisse in 2004, eventually winding up at UBS.

The wealthy are not like us. Caan, for example, utilized Philpott, Bills, Stoll and Meeks (PBSM) as his business manager. PBSM would:

·       Receive all Caan’s mail

·       Pay his bills

·       Send correspondence

·       Prepare his tax returns

·       Act as liaison with his financial advisors, attorneys, and accountants

I wish.

Caan had 2 IRAs at UBS. One was a regular, traditional, Mayberry-style IRA.

The second one owned a hedge fund.

The tax Code requires the IRA trustee or custodian to file reports every year. You probably have seen them: how much you contributed over the last year, or the balance in the IRA at year-end. Innocuous enough, except possibly for that year-end thing. Think nontraditional asset. How do you put a value on it? It depends, I suppose. It is easy enough to look up the price of gold. What if the asset is trickier: undeveloped land outside Huntsville, Alabama – or a hedge fund?

UBS had Caan sign an agreement for the IRA and its hedge fund.

The Client must furnish to the Custodian in writing the fair market value of each Investment annually by the 15th day of each January, valued as of the preceding December 31st, and within twenty days of any other written request from the Custodian, valued as of the date specified in such request. The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that a statement that the fair market value is undeterminable, or that cost basis should be used is not acceptable and the Client agrees that the fair market value furnished to the Custodian will be obtained from the issuer of the Investment (which includes the general partner or managing member thereof). The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that if the issuer is unable or unwilling to provide a fair market value, the Client shall obtain the fair market value from an independent, qualified appraiser and the valuation shall be furnished on the letterhead of the person providing the valuation.

Got it. You have to provide a number by January 15 following year-end. If it is a hassle, you have to obtain (and you pay for) an appraisal.

What if you don’t?

The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that the Custodian shall rely upon the Client’s continuing attention, and timely performance, of this responsibility. The Client acknowledges, understands and agrees that if the Custodian does not receive a fair market value as of the preceding December 31, the Custodian shall distribute the Investment to the Client and issue an IRS Form 1099–R for the last available value of the Investment.

Isn’t that a peach? Hassle UBS and they will distribute the IRA and send you a 1099-R. Unless that IRA is rolled over correctly, that “distribution” is going to cost you “taxes.”

Let’s start the calendar.

March 2015

UBS contacted the hedge fund for a value.

June 2015

Margiotta left UBS for Merrill Lynch.

August 2015

Striking out, UBS contacted PBSM for a value. 

October 2015

Hearing nothing, UBS sent PBSM a letter saying UBS was going to resign as IRA custodian in November. 

October 2015

Margiotta had Caan sign paperwork to transfer the IRAs from UBS to Merrill Lynch.

There was a problem: all the assets were transferred except for the hedge fund.

December 2015

UBS sent PBSM a letter saying that it had distributed the hedge fund to Caan.

January 2016

UBS sent a 1099-R.

March 2016

Caan’s accountant at PBSM sent an e-mail to Merrill Lynch asking why the hedge fund still showed UBS as custodian.

December 2016

Margiotta requested the hedge fund liquidate the investment and send the cash to Merrill Lynch. 

November 2017

The IRS sent the computer matching letter wanting tax on the IRA distribution. How did the IRS know about it? Because UBS sent that 1099-R.

The IRS wanted taxes of almost $780 grand, with penalties over $155 grand.

That caught everyone’s attention.

July 2018

Caan requested a private letter ruling from the IRS.

Caan wanted mitigation from an IRA rollover that went awry. This would be a moment for PBSM (or Merrill) to throw itself under the bus: taxpayer relied on us as experts to execute the transaction and was materially injured by our error or negligence….

That is not wanted they requested, though. They requested a waiver of the 60-day requirement for rollover of an IRA distribution.

I get it: accept that UBS correctly issued a 1099 for the distribution but argue that fairness required additional time to transfer the money to Merrill Lynch.

There is a gigantic technical issue, though.

Before that, I have a question: where was PBSM during this timeline? Caan was paying them to open and respond to his mail, including hiring and coordinating experts as needed. Somebody did a lousy job.

The Court wondered the same thing.

Both Margiotta and the PBSM accountant argued they never saw the letters from UBS until litigation started. Neither had known about UBS making a distribution.

Here is the Court:

            We do not find that portion of either witness’ testimony credible.

Explain, please.

We find it highly unlikely that PBSM received all mail from UBS— statements, the Form 1099–R, and other correspondence—except for the key letters (which were addressed to PBSM). Additionally, the March 2016 email between Ms. Cohn and Mr. Margiotta suggests that both of them knew of UBS’s representations that it had distributed the P&A Interest. It seems far more likely that there was simply a lack of communication and coordination between the professionals overseeing Mr. Caan’s affairs, especially given the timing of UBS’s letters, Mr. Margiotta’s move from UBS to Merrill Lynch, and the emails between Mr. Margiotta and Ms. Cohn. If all parties believed that UBS was still the P&A Interest’s custodian, why did no one follow up with UBS when it ceased to mail account statements for the IRAs? And why, if everyone was indeed blindsided by the Form 1099–R, did no one promptly follow up with UBS regarding it? (That followup did not occur until after the IRS issued its Form CP2000.) The Estate has offered no satisfactory explanation to fill these holes in its theory.

I agree with the Court.

I think that PBSM and/or Merrill Lynch should have thrown themselves under the bus.

But I would probably still have lost. Why? Look at this word salad:

        408(d) Tax treatment of distributions.

         (3)  Rollover contribution.

An amount is described in this paragraph as a rollover contribution if it meets the requirements of subparagraphs (A) and (B).

(A)  In general. Paragraph (1) does not apply to any amount paid or distributed out of an individual retirement account or individual retirement annuity to the individual for whose benefit the account or annuity is maintained if-

(i)  the entire amount received (including money and any other property) is paid into an individual retirement account or individual retirement annuity (other than an endowment contract) for the benefit of such individual not later than the 60th day after the day on which he receives the payment or distribution; or

(ii)  the entire amount received (including money and any other property) is paid into an eligible retirement plan for the benefit of such individual not later than the 60th day after the date on which the payment or distribution is received, except that the maximum amount which may be paid into such plan may not exceed the portion of the amount received which is includible in gross income (determined without regard to this paragraph).

I highlighted the phrase “including money and any other property.” There is a case (Lemishow) that read a “same property” requirement into that phrase.

What does that mean in non-gibberish?

It means that if you took cash and property out of UBS, then the same cash and property must go into Merrill Lynch.

Isn’t that what happened?

No.

What came out of UBS?

Well, one thing was that hedge fund that caused this ruckus. UBS said it distributed the hedge fund to Caan. They even issued him a 1099-R for it.

What went into Merrill Lynch?

Margiotta requested the hedge fund sell the investment and send the cash to Merrill Lynch.

Cash went into Merrill Lynch.

What went out was not the same as what went in.

Caan (his estate, actually) was taxable on the hedge fund coming out of the UBS IRA.

Dumb. Unnecessary. Expensive.

Our case this time was Estate of James E. Caan v Commissioner, 161 T.C. No. 6, filed October 18, 2023.


Monday, June 26, 2023

Failing To Take A Paycheck

I am looking at a case involving numerous issues. The one that caught my attention was imputed wage income from a controlled company in the following amounts:

2004                    $198,740

2005                    $209,200

2006                    $220,210

2007                    $231,800

2008                    $244,000

Imputed wage income means that someone should have received a paycheck but did not.

Perhaps they used the company to pay personal expenses, I think to myself, and the IRS is treating those expenses as additional W-2 income. Then I see that the IRS is also assessing constructive dividends in the following amounts:

2004                    $594,170

2005                    $446,782

2006                    $375,246

2007                    $327,503

2008                    $319,854 

The constructive dividends would be those personal expenses.

What happened here?

Let’s look at the Hacker case.

Barry and Celeste Hacker owned and were the sole shareholders of Blossom Day Care Centers, Inc., an Oklahoma corporation that operated daycare centers throughout Tulsa. Mr. Hacker also worked as an electrician, and the two were also the sole shareholders of another company - Hacker Corp (HC).

The Hackers were Blossom’s only corporate officers. Mrs. Hacker oversaw the workforce and directed the curriculum, for example, and Mr. Hacker was responsible for accounting and finance functions.

Got it. She sounds like the president of the company, and he sounds like the treasurer.

For the years at issue, the Hackers did not take a paycheck from Blossom.

COMMENT: In isolation, this does not have to be fatal.

Rather than pay the Hackers directly, Blossom made payments to HC, which in turn paid wages to the Hackers.

This strikes me as odd. Whereas it is not unusual to select one company out of several (related companies) to be a common paymaster, generally ALL payroll is paid through the paymaster. That is not what happened here. Blossom paid its employees directly, except for Mr. and Mrs. Hacker.

I am trying to put my finger on why I would do this. I see that Blossom is a C corporation (meaning it pays its own tax), whereas HC is an S corporation (meaning its income is included on its shareholders’ tax return). Maybe they were doing FICA arbitrage. Maybe they did not want anyone at Blossom to see how much they made.  Maybe they were misadvised.

Meanwhile, the audit was going south. Here are few issues the IRS identified:

(1)  The Hackers used Blossom credit cards to pay for personal expenses, including jewelry, vacations, and other luxury items. The kids got on board too, although they were not Blossom employees.

(2)  HC paid for vehicles it did not own used by employees it did not have. We saw a Lexus, Hummer, BMW, and Cadillac Escalade.

(3) Blossom hired a CPA in 2007 to prepare tax returns. The Hackers gave him access to the bank statements but failed to provide information about undeposited cash payments received from Blossom parents.

NOTE: Folks, you NEVER want to have “undeposited” business income. This is an indicium of fraud, and you do not want to be in that neighborhood.

(4)  The Hackers also gave the CPA the credit card statements, but they made no effort to identify what was business and what was family and personal. The CPA did what he could, separating the obvious into a “Note Receivable Officer” account. The Hackers – zero surprise at this point in the story - made no effort to repay the “Receivable” to Blossom.  

(5) Blossom paid for a family member’s wedding. Mr. Hacker called it a Blossom-oriented “celebration.”  

(6) In that vein, the various trips to the Bahamas, Europe, Hawaii, Las Vegas, and New Orleans were also business- related, as they allowed the family to “not be distracted” as they pursued the sacred work of Blossom.

There commonly is a certain amount of give and take during an audit. Not every expense may be perfectly documented. A disbursement might be coded to the wrong account. The company may not have charged someone for personal use of a company-owned vehicle. It happens. What you do not want to do, however, is keep piling on. If you do – and I have seen it happen – the IRS will stop believing you.

The IRS stopped believing the Hackers.

Frankly, so did I.

The difference is, the IRS can retaliate.

How?

Easy.

The Hackers were officers of Blossom.

Did you know that all corporate officers are deemed to be employees for payroll tax purposes? The IRS opened a worker classification audit, found them to be statutory employees, and then went looking for compensation.

COMMENT: Well, that big “Note Receivable Officer” is now low hanging fruit, isn’t it?

Whoa, said the Hackers. There is a management agreement. Blossom pays HC and HC pays us.

OK, said the IRS: show us the management agreement.

There was not one, of course.

These are related companies, the Hackers replied. This is not the same as P&G or Alphabet or Tesla. Our arrangements are more informal.

Remember what I said above?

The IRS will stop believing you.

Petitioner has submitted no evidence of a management agreement, either written or oral, with Hacker Corp. Likewise, petitioner has submitted no evidence, written or otherwise, as to a service agreement directing the Hackers to perform substantial services on behalf of Hacker Corp to benefit petitioner, or even a service or employment agreement between the Hackers and Hacker Corp.”

Bam! The IRS imputed wage income to the Hackers.

How bad could it be, you ask. The worst is the difference between what Blossom should have paid and what Hacker Corp actually paid, right?

Here is the Court:

Petitioner’s arguments are misguided in that wages paid by Hacker Corp do not offset reasonable compensation requirements for the services provided by petitioner’s corporate officers to petitioner.”

Can it go farther south?

Respondent also determined that petitioner is liable for employment taxes, penalties under section 6656 for failure to deposit tax, and accuracy-elated penalties under section 6662(a) for negligence.”

How much in penalties are we talking about?

2005                    $17,817

2006                    $18,707

2007                    $19,576

2008                    $20,553

I do not believe this is a case about tax law as much as it is a case about someone pushing the boundary too far. Could the IRS have accepted an informal management agreement and passed on the “statutory employee” thing? Of course, and I suspect that most times out of ten they would. But that is not what we have here. Somebody was walking much too close to the boundary - if not walking on the fence itself - and that somebody got punished.

Our case this time was Blossom Day Care Centers, Inc v Commissioner, T.C. Memo 2021-86.


Sunday, July 18, 2021

A Day Trader and Wash Losses

 

We have had a difficult time with the tax return of someone who dove into the deep end of the day-trading pool last year. The year-end Fidelity statement reported the trades, but the calculation of gain and losses was way off. The draft return landed on my desk showing a wash loss of about $2.5 million. Problem: the client was trading approximately $250 grand in capital. She would have known if she lost $2.5 million as either she (1) would have had a capital call, (2) used margin, or (3) done a bit of both.

Let’s talk about wash sales.

The rule was created in 1921 because of a too-favorable tax strategy.

Let’s say that you own a stock. You really believe in it and have no intention of parting with it. You get near the end of the year and you are reviewing your to-date capital gains and losses with your advisor. You have $5 thousand in capital gains so far. That stock you like, however, took a dip and would show a $4 thousand loss … if you sold it. The broker hatches a plan.

“This is what we will do” says the broker. We will sell the stock on December 30 and buy it back on January 2. You will be out of the stock for a few days, but it should not move too much. What it will do is allow us to use that $4 thousand loss to offset the $5 thousand gain.”

It is a great plan.

Too great, in fact. Congress caught wind and changed the rules. If you sell a stock at a loss AND buy the same or substantially identical stock either

·      30 days before or

·      30 days after …

… the sale creating the loss, you will have a wash sale. What the tax law does is grab the loss ($4 thousand in our example) and add it to the basis of the stock that you bought during the 30 day before-and-after period. The loss is not permanently lost, but it is delayed.

Mind you, it only kicks-in if you sell at a loss. Sell at a gain and the government will always take your money.

Let’s go through an example:

·      On June 8 you sell 100 shares at a loss of $600.

·      On July 3 you buy 100 shares of the same stock.

You sold at a loss. You replaced the stock within the 61-day period. You have a wash loss. The tax Code will disallow the $600 loss on the June 8 trade and increase your basis in the July 3 trade by $600. The $600 loss did not disappear, but it is waiting until you sell that July 3 position.

Problem: you day trade. You cannot go 48 hours without trading in-and-out of your preferred group of stocks.

You will probably have a lot of wash sales. If you didn’t, you might want to consider quitting your day job and launching a hedge fund.

Problem: do this and you can blow-up the year-end tax statement Fidelity sends you. That is how I have a return on my desk showing $2.5 million of losses when the client had “only” $250 grand in the game.

I want to point something out.

Let’s return to our example and change the dates.

·      You already own 100 shares of a stock

·      On June 8 you buy another 100 shares

·      On July 3 you sell 100 shares at a loss

This too is a wash. Remember: 30 days BEFORE and after. It is a common mistake.

The “substantially identical” stock requirement can be difficult to address in practice. Much of the available guidance comes from Revenue Rulings and case law, leaving room for interpretation. Let’s go through a few examples.

·      You sell and buy 100 shares of Apple. That is easy: wash sale.

·      You sell 100 shares of Apple and buy 100 shares of Microsoft. That is not a wash as the stocks are not the same.

·      You sell 30-year Apple bonds and buy 10-year Apple bonds. This is not a wash, as bonds of different maturities are not considered substantially identical, even if issued by the same company.

·      You sell Goldman Sachs common stock and buy Goldman Sachs preferred. This is not a wash, as a company’s common and preferred stock are not considered substantially identical.

·      You sell 100 shares of American Funds Growth Fund and buy 100 shares of Fidelity Growth Company. The tax law gets murky here. There are all kinds of articles about portfolio overlap and whatnot trying to interpret the “substantially identical” language in the area of mutual funds.  Fortunately, the IRS has not beat the drums over the years when dealing with funds. I, for example, would consider the management team to be a significant factor when buying an actively-managed mutual fund. I would hesitate to consider two actively-managed funds as substantially identical when they are run by different teams. I would consider two passively-managed index funds, by contrast, as substantially identical if they tracked the same index.  

·      You sell 100 shares of iShares S&P 500 ETF and buy the Vanguard S&P 500 ETF.  I view this the same as two index mutual funds tracking the same index: the ETFs are substantially identical.

·      Let’s talk options. Say that you sell 100 shares of a stock and buy a call on the same stock (a call is the option to buy a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax Code considers a stock sale followed by the purchase of a call to be substantially identical.

·      Let’s continue with the stock/call combo. What if you reverse the order: sell the call for a loss and then buy the stock? You have a different answer: the IRS does not consider this a wash.

·      Staying with options, let’s say that you sell 100 shares of stock and sell a put on the same stock (a put is the option to sell a stock at a set price within a set period of time). The tax consequence of a put option is not as bright-line as a call option. The IRS looks at whether the put is “likely to be exercised,” generally interpreted as being “in the money.”

Puts can be confusing, so let’s walk through an example. Selling means that somebody pays me money. Somebody does that for the option of requiring me to buy their stock at a set price for a set period. Say they pay me $4 a share for the option of selling to me at $55 a share. Say the stock goes to $49 a share. Their breakeven is $51 a share ($55 minus $4). They can sell to me at net $51 or sell at the market for $49.  Folks, they are selling the stock to me. That put is “in-the-money.”  

Therefore, if I sell a put when it is in-the-money, I very likely have something substantially identical.

There are other rules out there concerning wash sales.

·      You sell the stock and your spouse buys the stock. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock in your Fidelity account and buy it in your Vanguard account. That will be a wash.

·      You sell a stock and your IRA buys the stock. All right, that one is not as obvious, but the IRS considers that a wash. I get it: one is taxable and the other is tax-deferred. But the IRS says it is a wash. I am not the one making the rules here.

·      There is a proportional rule. If you sell 100 shares at a loss and buy only 40 shares during the relevant 61-day period, then 40% (40/100) of the total loss will be disallowed as a wash.

Let’s circle back to our day trader. The term “trader” has a specific meaning in the tax Code. You might consider someone a trader because they buy and sell like a madman. Even so, the tax Code has a bias to NOT consider one a trader. There are numerous cases where someone trades on a regular, continuous and substantial basis – maybe keeping an office and perhaps even staff - but the IRS does not consider them a trader. Maybe there is a magic number that will persuade the IRS - 200 trading days a year, $10 million dollars in annual trades, a bazillion individual trades – but no one knows.

There is however one sure way to have the IRS recognize someone as a trader. It is the mark-to-market election. The wash loss rule will not apply, but one will pay tax on all open positions at year-end. Tax nerds refer to this as a “mark,” hence the name of the election.

The mark pretends that you sold everything at the end of the year, whether you actually did or did not. It plays pretend but with your wallet. This tax treatment is different from the general rule, the one where you actually have to sell (or constructively sell) something before the IRS can tax you.

Also, the election is permanent; one can only get out of it with IRS permission.

A word of caution: read up and possibly seek professional advice if you are considering a mark election. This is nonroutine stuff – even for a tax pro. I have been in practice for over 35 years, and I doubt I have seen a mark election a half-dozen times.

Sunday, September 8, 2019

Dog The Bounty Hunter And The IRS


The IRS has a form just to inform them that you moved.

Many, many years ago I was asked why this form existed, as the IRS would automatically update its files when you filed your next tax return.

After decades of practice, I have a very good idea why this form exists.

Let’s talk about Duane Chapman, whom you may know as Dog the Bounty Hunter. You may also remember that his wife – Beth – recently passed away from throat cancer.

The series Dog the Bounty Hunter aired from 2003 to 2012; the show took Duane and Beth to Hawaii and Colorado.


In 2012 the IRS was looking at their 2006 and 2007 tax returns.
COMMENT: You may be wondering why the statute did not close on the tax returns after 3 years. The IRS will – especially if there is complexity to the return – usually ask one to extend the statute period. I tend to accept such requests, as the alternative is for the IRS to disallow everything and issue a Notice of Deficiency before the statute expires.
Let’s highlight several dates.

Duane and Beth used their CPA’s address for their 2010 tax return.

Their favorite accountant left that CPA firm to start his own. Duane and Beth followed.

Duane and Beth then used this CPA’s new address for their 2011 return.

We therefore have two addresses in Los Angeles.

Mind you, the television show was in Honolulu.

And they also had a home in Colorado.

It was 2012 and the IRS was preparing a Notice of Deficiency, also known as the 90-day letter.  One has 90 days to appeal to the Tax Court.

The IRS was required to send the Notice to their “last known address.”

That presents a problem.

What address do you use?

The Appeals Officer had an IRS employee search for addresses, but eventually he sent copies of the Notice to both CPAs in Los Angeles.

The story now goes wonky.

The old CPA received the Notice but did not see fit to forward it to Duane and Beth, or at least to place a call or send an e-mail to either – you know, for old time’s sake.

I am thinking he may want to contact his insurance carrier, just in case.

The new CPA said he never received the Notice, but Post Office records show that it had been delivered. What makes this doubly peculiar is that the CPA had previously contacted the Appeals Officer explaining that he would soon be filing a power of attorney. And he did – but after delay and after the Officer had closed the file.

I am thinking he may want to contact his insurance carrier also.

The IRS assessed taxes, interest and penalties.

Duane and Beth challenged whether the IRS used their last known address. If the IRS did not, then the Notice of Deficiency was not properly served and any tax or penalty could not be reduced to assessment. Both parties would be back to square one.

Duane and Beth argued that any IRS notice should have gone to their address in Hawaii, as that is where they were. The IRS knew that the Los Angeles addresses were for their CPAs and not for them personally.

The Court had to address the meaning of “last known address.”

And it means pretty much what you would think.

The last known address was for their old CPA. The IRS had extended a courtesy by sending a copy to the new CPA, especially considering his delay in sending a power of attorney. Granted, the IRS knew – or should have known – that they were in Hawaii, but that is not what “last known address” means.

The taxpayer decides that address. By filing a return. Or by filing that change-of-address form noted at the beginning of this post.

Duane and Beth had decided it would be their CPA’s address.

They had filed with the Tax Court long after 90 days had expired.

So their filing was dismissed as untimely.

Our case this time was Chapman v Commissioner, TC Memo 2019-110.


Saturday, November 11, 2017

Can You Depreciate a Battle Axe?


Mr. and Mrs. Eotvos (Eotvos) ran a day care out of their house.

There are special tax rules for a day care provider.

(1) For example, how would you depreciate your personal house for the day care activity?

The first rule that comes to mind is the office-in-home, but that rule doesn’t work for a provider. The office-in-home requires “exclusive” use in order to claim a deduction. By that standard a provider wouldn’t be able to claim any depreciation, unless one had a room used only for the day care.

In response, the IRS loosened that rule from “exclusive” to “regular” use. For example, a provider would use the kitchen, dining room and bathrooms regularly, making them eligible for depreciation.

Can you claim 100% of the cost of your house?

You already know the answer is “no.” That is what the shift from “exclusive use” to “regular use” means.

But what percentage do you use?

You probably use hours.

Let’s say you have kids in your house 45 hours a week.

You still spend time cleaning, lesson planning, preparing meals and so on. Say that it comes to another 14 hours per week.

There are 168 hours in a week. You spend 59 hours on daycare activities. Seems to me that 35% (59/168) would be reasonable.

(2) If you travel, you likely know about the per diem rate. This is something the IRS publishes annually, and – in general – you can deduct this rate for each day you are away-from-home for business purposes. You do not have to. You can claim actual expenses if you wish, but you will need to step-up your document retention procedures if you go that route.

Did you know that there are per diem rates for a day care provider? Yep, there is a rate for breakfast, lunch and snack. You can claim the per diem and skip the hassle of segregating how much of your grocery bill was for the day care and how much was personal.

The IRS looked at Eotvos’ 2012 through 2014 tax returns. They claimed depreciation on their house. The Court wanted to see the calculation.

Eotvos photographed numerous pieces of furniture and furnishings and estimated what they were worth.

COMMENT: We will not get into Accounting 101 here, but this is not the way it is done.

The furnishings they were depreciating – best the Court could tell - included a battle axe and jewelry.

Folks, there has to be some connection to a business activity to even start this conversation. You cannot bring home a pair of Nike sneakers and claim that 35% of the cost is deductible because you brought them inside the house.

Here is the Court:
Battle axes were not used as children’s playthings, and their acquisition and maintenance was not in furtherance of the day care business.”

What happens when you tell the Court silly stuff?
And a witness who can testify with a straight face about the nexus between a battle axe and a day care business earns no credibility.”
This is going south.

The IRS had calculated some depreciation, as there was no question that there was a day care there. Eotvos very much disagreed with the calculation, arguing – among other things – that the allowable business-use percentage should be 100%.
This blanket assertion, like the battle axe, strains credulity.”
They hit south and just kept going.

The Court allowed the IRS-calculated depreciation. The Court however slapped an accuracy-related penalty on the excess of their depreciation over the IRS number.

They sort of brought that upon themselves.


Saturday, August 26, 2017

It’s A Trap


Let’s talk about an IRS trap.

It has to do with procedure.

Let’s say that the you start receiving notices from the IRS. You ignore them, perhaps you are frightened, confused or unable to pay.

Granted, I would point out that this is a poor response to the chain-letter sequence you will be receiving, but it is a human response. It happens more frequently than you might think. Too many times I have been brought into these situations rather late, and sometimes options are severely limited.

The BIG notice from the IRS is called a 90-day letter, also known as a Statutory Notice of Deficiency. Tax nerds refer to it as a SNOD.


This is the final notice in the chain-letter sequence, so one would have been receiving correspondence for a while. The IRS is going to assess, and one has 90 days to file with the Tax Court.

Assessment means that the IRS has 10 years to collect from you. They can file a lien, for example, and damage your credit. They might levy or garnish, neither of which is a good place to be.

I have sometimes used a SNOD as a backdoor way to get to IRS appeals. Perhaps the taxpayer had ignored matters until it reached critical mass, or perhaps the first Appeals had been missed or botched. I had a first Appeals a few years back with a novice officer, and her lack of experience was the third party on our phone call.

Let the 90 days run out and the Tax Court cannot hear the case.
NOTE: Most times a Tax Court filing never goes to court. The Tax Court does not want to hear your case, and the first thing they do is send it back to Appeals. The Court wants to machinery to solve the issue without them getting involved.
Our case this time involves Caleb Tang. He filed pro se with the Tax Court, meaning that he represented himself. Technically Caleb does not have to go by himself – he can hire someone like me – but there are limitations.  

There is a game here, and the IRS has used the play before.

The taxpayer makes a mistake with the filing. In our story, Caleb filed but he forgot to pay the filing fee.

Technically this means the Court would not have jurisdiction.

Caleb also filed an amended return.

As I said, sometimes there are few good options.

The IRS contacted Caleb and said that they would not process his amended return unless he dropped the Tax Court petition.

Trap.

You see, Caleb was past the 90-day window. If he dropped his filing, the IRS would automatically get its assessment, and Caleb would have no assurance they would process his amended return.

Caleb would then not be able to get back to Tax Court. Procedure requires that he pay the tax and then sue in District Court or Court of Federal Claims. There is no pro se in that venue, and Caleb would have no choice but to hire an attorney.

That will weed out a lot of people.

Fortunately, the Court (Chief Judge L Paige Marvel) knew this.

He allowed Caleb additional time to pay his application fee.

Meaning that the case got into the Tax Court’s pipeline.

What happens next?

It could go three different ways:

(1) Both parties drop the case.
(2) They do not drop the case and the matter goes back to Appeals.
(3) The Court hears the case.


I suspect the IRS will process Caleb’s amended return now.